The study of aerodynamics involves understanding how air interacts with solid objects, particularly aircraft. Mastering the basic principles of aerodynamics is essential for anyone seeking an aerospace certification.
Every aircraft in flight is subject to four forces: lift, weight (gravity), thrust, and drag.
- Lift – Lift is the upward force that opposes the weight of the airplane and supports it in the air. It’s created as air flows over and under the wings, generating a pressure difference.
- Weight (Gravity) – Weight pulls the aircraft downward due to the force of gravity. It opposes lift and is determined by the mass of the airplane and its contents.
- Thrust – Thrust is the force that moves the airplane forward. Engines produce thrust by expelling air or exhaust backward, resulting in a forward reaction.
- Drag – Drag is the resistance encountered by the airplane as it displaces the air in front of it. There are two main types of drag: parasite drag (formed due to the shape of the aircraft) and induced drag (created by the generation of lift).
The principles of fluid mechanics help us understand the behavior of air as a fluid around an object (like an aircraft) and how it creates forces like lift and drag.
- Bernoulli’s Principle – It states that as the velocity of a fluid increases, its pressure decreases. This principle explains the lift created by an airplane wing, known as an airfoil.
- Venturi Effect – It’s a specific application of Bernoulli’s principle where fluid pressure decreases as it passes through a constricted path, increasing its speed.
Each part of an aircraft has a role in how it interacts with the air it moves through. Studying these components will aid in understanding their aerodynamic contributions.
- Airfoil – An airfoil is the shape of a wing, blade (of a propeller, rotor, or turbine), or sail. The top surface is more curved than the bottom, creating a pressure difference and producing lift.
- Wings – Wings are the main source of lift in an aircraft. The design and positioning of wings can greatly affect an airplane’s flight capabilities.
- Fuselage – The fuselage is the main body of the aircraft, housing the crew, passengers, and cargo. Its shape can affect the aircraft’s drag and stability.
- Empennage – The empennage or tail section includes vertical and horizontal stabilizers, which help maintain the aircraft’s balance and stability.
An aircraft in flight undergoes various maneuvers. Understanding the aerodynamics behind these maneuvers is crucial to safely control the aircraft.
- Climbs and Descents – Climbing and descending involve increasing or decreasing the aircraft’s altitude, respectively. This requires a balance of thrust and lift.
- Turns – In a turn, the aircraft rotates around its center of gravity. To maintain level flight during a turn, the aircraft must generate extra lift.
- Stalls – A stall occurs when the wings lose their lift due to the angle of attack (the angle between the wing’s chord line and the oncoming airflow) being too high.
- Spins – A spin is an aggravated stall that results in auto-rotation where one wing stalls more than the other. It requires proper training to recover from a spin safely.
AERO and FERC Answers
| Question | Answer |
|---|---|
| The incident action plan (IAP) consists of multiple components. Which ICS Section/Unit is normally responsible to prepare the assignment list component of the IAP? | Resources Unit |
| The recovery operations chief, in coordination with the emergency operations center director and supported from various __________, directs recovery and restoration of the incident site. | emergency support functions |
| Which section below is responsible for gathering and disseminating information critical to the incident? | Planning |
| The Air Force Incident Management System (AFIMS) incorporates the ___________ policies and doctrine. | National Response Framework (NRF) |
| The incident action plan must be in writing for all incidents. | False |
| The decision to release ESF members is normally a coordinated effort between the EOC director and _______. | Recovery Operations Chief |
| The incident action plan (IAP) consists of multiple components. Which ICS Section/Unit is normally responsible to prepare the logistics plan component of the IAP? | Resources Unit |
| A National Response Framework (NRF) response doctrine principle is; tiered response. | True |
| Fire Emergency Services will be the IC for incidents that involve more than two response agencies. | True |
| A task force is a set number of resources of the same kind and type that have an established minimum number of personnel. | False |
| During the incident action plan development process, SMART objectives are developed. What does the acronym SMART mean? | Specific, Measurable, Action oriented, Realistic, Time sensitive |
| When are Mutual Aid Agreements normally developed? | Well before incidents occur. |
| Which section below is responsible for the tactical operations at the incident? | Operations |
| Common terminology should be used during incident response operations. Which of the following terms would NOT be considered common terminology during a joint military civilian response? | Eagle One |
| The incident command system command function may be conducted in one of two ways. What are these two ways? | Unified Command and Incident Command |
| Which statement describes what a common operating picture provides during an incident that involves the disaster response force conducting the incident briefing? | Provides the ground truth awareness and understanding of an incident. |
| Which DRF function maintains tactical control of an incident? | IC |
| Resources needed to support the incident commander are categorized into two categories, kind and ________________. | Type |
| A common operating picture is a single identical display of relevant information shared by various elements of the installation’s disaster response force. | True |
| When incident command has been transferred, the process must include a briefing of essential information for continuing effective operations. Which element from the list below should be the first one to address during the transfer of command briefing? | Situation Status |
| An example of a “kind” of resource is _________. | 2.5 ton truck |
| Which activity below is an example of an activity at the end of the response phase? | Scene Stabilization |
| ICS forms must be used to assist the IC and staff to manage the incident. | False |
| The purpose of an area command is to oversee a single incident when an incident commander is not available. | False |
| The IC must maintain a situational awareness or scene size-up of the incident. Which of the following is a scene size-up issue the IC must be aware of? | Nature and complexity of the incident |
| Which of the following is an initial response governing principle? | Determine and communicate protective measures or Establish a cordon |
| If an incident escalates into a large complex incident and the installation’s support requirements are exceeded, what can the incident commander call upon or implement to request additional support from outside agencies? | Mutual Aid Agreements |
| What is the primary consideration for selecting or designating the recovery operations chief? This person must be; | a subject matter expert in the hazards or recovery activities underway within the incident site. |
| In connection with the Defense Support of Civil Authorities program, which of the following best describes the legal term “Posse Comitatus”? | A law prohibiting federal military troops to enforce civilian laws. |
| When local and state authorities are overwhelmed by major incidents and request assistance from an Air Force installation, installation commanders may authorize immediate response for which of the following reasons? | Mitigate massive property damage. |
| The written incident action plan is developed with assistance from the EOC, ICS command, and general staff. Which of the following develops the incident objectives? | Incident Commander |
| During the incident action plan (IAP) development process, existing portions of installation plans such as the Installation Emergency Management Plan 10-2 or Integrated Defense Plan should not be considered or included in the final IAP. | False |
| Area command is used when there are ________ incidents that are being handled by separate incident command system organization | Multiple |
| What is the title of a person assigned to the command staff? | Officer |
| Until air national guard forces are placed on title 10 active duty status, they act on behalf of the units state governor | True |
| Which section below is responsible for ordering all support to the incident? | Logistics |
| Transfer of command from on IC to another IC is determined by the rank of the person assuming command | False |
| In connection w the defense support of civil authorities program, which of the following best describes the legal term “posse comitatus”? | A law prohibiting federal military troops to enforce civilian laws |
| Which statement describes what a common operating picture provides during an incident that involves the disaster response force conducting the incident briefing? | Provides the ground truth awareness and understanding of an incident |
| The AFIMS incorporates the _____ policies and doctrine | National response framework (NRF) |
| When local and state authorities are overwhelmed by major incidents, what program can they use to request federal assistance? | Defense support of civil authorities |
| Which DRF function maintains tactical control of an incident? | IC |
| The incident command system command function may be conducted in one of two ways. What are these two ways? | Unified command and incident command |
| The purpose of an area command is to oversee a single incident when an incident commander is not available | False |
| During the incident action plan development process, SMART objectives are developed. What does the acronym mean? | Specific, measurable, action oriented, realistic, time sensitive |
| The IC takes policy direction from the senior military representative (SMR). Who is normally the installation SMR? | MSG/CC |
| The incident command system is organized around five major functional areas; command, operation, logistics, finance, and administration and | Planning |
| What is the primary consideration for selecting or designating the recovery operations chief? This person must be; | A subject matter expert in the hazards or recovery activities underway within the incident site |
| A national response framework (NRF) response doctrine principle; tiered response. | True |
| Long term recovery operations will most likely require activation of ESF-14, long term community recovery/mitigation. Which installation function is the office of primary responsibility for ESF-14? | Civil engineer squadron |
| The incident action plan must be in writing for which of the following incidents? | A hazardous material is involved in the incident |
| When local and state authorities are overwhelmed by major incidents and request assistance from an AF installation, installation commanders may authorize immediate response for which of the following reasons? | Mitigate massive property damage |
| Examples of some elements of an AF multiagency coordination system (MACS) are emergency operations center, crisis action team, and ______ | Unit control centers |
| The IC must maintain a situational awareness or scene size up of the incident. Which of the following is a scene size up issue the IC must be aware of? | Nature and complexity of the incident |
| During the IAP development process, existing portions of installations plans such as the installation emergency management plan 10-2 or integrated defense plan should not be considered or included in the final IAP | False |
| Fire emergency services will be the IC for incidents that involve more than two response agencies | True |
Was this helpful?
Let us know if this was helpful. That’s the only way we can improve.
