OSHA 30 Construction Test Answers

The OSHA 30 Hour Training program is a highly sought-after certificate course in the field of Health, Safety, and Environment (HSE) within the United States and is recognized globally. It is tailored for workers at the entry-level who are engaged in construction and other industries and provides in-depth coverage of various health and safety hazards that may be present within a workplace.

This course provides comprehensive training that covers the fundamentals of workplace safety, and equips workers with the knowledge and skills required to identify and mitigate hazards within their work environment.

Module 1: Introduction To OSHA 30 Test Answers

Question	Answer
The CFR Parts, such as Part 1926 for Construction, are further broken down into ___________, which group together specific and detailed standards.	Subparts
When the employer receives an OSHA citation, it must be:	Posted for 3 days or until the violation is fixed
Which of the following is a type of OSHA violation?	All of the above
What are two US government agencies that are good resources for safety and health information?	OSHA and NIOSH
What section of the OSH Act does the Whistleblower Program reference?	Section 11(c)
The creation of OSHA provided this important right to workers:	The right to a safe and healthful workplace
When you’ve been assigned a new job or task, be sure to ask about the:	Written procedures and any additional training that may be required
You can request to remain anonymous when OSHA presents a complaint to your employer.	True
Where there is no specific OSHA standard, employers must comply with the OSH Act’s:	General Duty Clause
What does OSHA require employers to post for 3 days?	OSHA citations and abatement verification notices
What type of OSHA inspection is conducted when immediate death or serious harm is likely?	Imminent danger
Workers must be trained in which of the following?	All of the above
Which of the following is a way that an employee can contact OSHA?	All of the above
The OSHA standards for Construction and General Industry are found in:	Parts 1926 and 1910
Employers covered by OSHA’s standards must display an “It’s the Law” poster. What does this poster address?	Safety and health information
Which of following would be best to have when consulting a medical professional about possible exposure to a harmful chemical?	Safety Data Sheet for the chemical
OSHA requires that employers pay for which of the following personal protective equipment (PPE)?	Hard hats
Among the rights related to OSHA recordkeeping, workers have the right to review:	OSHA 300 Logs and OSHA 300A Summaries
What is OSHA’s mission?	All of the above
Which groups do NOT come under OSHA’s coverage?	Both A and B
OSHA requires employers to maintain certain records on and report work-related injuries and illnesses. Which of the following is used for this process?	All of the above
Who does OSHA recommend you first bring a workplace safety or health concern to?	Your employer
A worker or worker representative can file a complaint about a safety or health hazard in the workplace.	True
One of the main responsibilities employers have, as required by OSHA standards, is to:	Provide training
Typically, how long does an employee have to file a complaint with OSHA, when the employee has been discriminated against for reporting a safety or health hazard?	30 days
OSHA standards fall into four categories (or Parts): General Industry, Construction, Maritime, and Agriculture.	True
The right of workers to be safe and healthy while on the job, without fear of punishment is spelled out in:	Section 11(c) of the OSH Act
During an OSHA inspection:	You have the right to talk to the inspector privately
OSHA standards appear in the Code of Federal Regulations (CFR).	True

Module 2: Managing Safety and Health Answers

Question	Answer
IIPP is an acronym for	C. Injury and Illness Prevention Program (correct answer)
OSHA recognizes that the implementation of a safety and health program as a way of demonstrating	A. Good faith by an employer (correct answer)
The order of precedence and effectiveness of hazard control is which of the following?	D. Engineering controls, Administrative/Work Practice Controls, PPE (correct answer)
The risk assessment code or RAC is used to evaluate:	D. Both A and B above (correct answer)
OSHA’s IIPP Proposed Rule includes which of the elements below?	D. All of the above (correct answer)
A Job Hazard Analysis (JHA) is:	D. Both A and B above (correct answer)
Incident investigation should focus on:	D. Both B and C above (correct answer)
Which of the following incidents / accidents require investigation?	D. All of the above should be investigated. (correct answer)
An effective occupational safety and health program will include which of the following elements?	E. All the above (correct answer)
Regardless of the title (e.g. IIPP, Safety and Health Program, Accident Prevention Program), the common goal of these approaches is to	E. Both C and D (correct answer)
The basic causes of accidents/incidents are:	D. Both A and B (correct answer)
In order to be effective corrective/preventive actions must have:	D. All of the above (correct answer)
Who should be held accountable for meeting safety and health program responsibilities in the workplace?	D. All of the above (correct answer)

Which of the following should be part of an effective Safety and Health Program or IIPP?	D. All of the above (correct answer)
Supervisors should receive specific training to	D. Both A and B (correct answer)
Which of the following is a benefit for having a safety and health program?	A. company may need to bid on a contract that requires safety and health documentation (correct answer)
Guidance for safety and health program development is available thru	B. OSHA consultation (correct answer)
In general, accidents and incidents are caused by unsafe or hazardous conditions and:	C. Unsafe or unhealthy actions and behaviors (correct answer)
Injury and illness prevention is the responsibility of	A. Employers and employees (correct answer)
A company’s safety and health program should cover	D. All workers that the employer directs, supervises, or controls (correct answer)
OSHA now recommends that effective safety and health programs include	B. 7 (correct answer)
Which of the following is a core element of a safety and health program, as recommended by OSHA?	D. Worker participation (correct answer)
A safety and health program should:	B. Be formally documented (correct answer)
An accounting of safety and health responsibilities should be	C. Included in performance reviews (correct answer)
Management duties include which of the following?	D. All the above (correct answer)
Which of following is an executive management role with regard to an organization’s safety and health program?	A. Creating a safety mission or policy statement (correct answer)
Safety and health directors should be:	C. Involved with executive management decisions that in any way affect workplace safety (correct answer)
Which of the following is important with regard to a labor/management safety and health committee?	B. Documented guidance on how employee safety suggestions are evaluated (correct answer)
A safety incentive program:	C. Might compromise an employee’s decision to report a safety incident (correct answer)
Which of the following is critical to the success of a safety and health program?	D. Worker participation in program development (correct answer)

A program that recognizes an employee for safe work practices	B. Is a good practice that many organizations use to help with safety compliance (correct answer)
When should a formal hazard assessment or inspection be performed?	A. When a new hazard is uncovered (correct answer)
The three general phases of a JHA are 1) Identify the job steps;2) Identify the hazards for each step; and 3) ___________________	B. Identify ways to control the hazards (correct answer)
What Is a JHA used for?	C. Identifying needed safety and health training programs (correct answer)
Three factors impact hazard inspections:	A. Frequency, documentation, and the inspection areas (correct answer)
An employer must notify OSHA within _________________ of a fatality.	A. 8 hours (correct answer)
When an imminent hazard exist that cannot be controlled without endangering employees or property:	D. Quickly remove all exposed personnel from the area (correct answer)
Hazard prevention and control should contain both:	D. Human and administrative resources (correct answer)
The OSHA Outreach Training Program is an excellent source for employee safety training	A. True (correct answer)
What does the term “training mode” refer to?	D. The way training is delivered (e.g., classroom or online) (correct answer)
Supervisors should receive specific training in leadership skills such as:	B. Communication and coaching (correct answer)
Prevention of musculoskeletal disorders is an important training topic.	A. True (correct answer)
Who should be involved in communication and coordination of safety and health programs?	D. All of the above (correct answer)
Two good measures of safety and health program effectiveness are:	C. Lagging and leading indicators (correct answer)
Who should be on the team that evaluates a safety and health program?	E. All of the above (correct answer)
A safety and health program is called a living document. Why?	A. A safety and health program changes as an organization changes (correct answer)

A near miss is an event that	B. Could have caused a serious incident, but did not (correct answer)
Which of the following is an incident that should be investigated?	D. All the above (correct answer)
Which of the following statements are true about incidents?	C. Nearly all workplace incidents are wholly preventable (correct answer)
Which of the following fits the definition of “root cause”?	D. Underlying reason why an unsafe condition exists (correct answer)
Who should be part of a worksite incident investigation team?	B. Management supervisors, and employees working together (correct answer)
What should an incident investigation program include?	D. All the above (correct answer)
On a multi-employer worksite, who is responsible for conducting an incident investigation?	B. Host employer, who shares the incident investigation with each employer at the site (correct answer)
What is the ideal time for conducting witness interviews during an incident investigation?	A. As promptly as possible, since memories fade over time (correct answer)
You are investigating an incident where a worker has fallen off a scaffold, resulting in a broken leg. Which of the following might be considered a root cause of this incident?	A. Damaged guardrail was not repaired because of production goals (correct answer)
Which of the following is an across-the-board corrective action that might be implemented as part of an incident investigation?	D. All the above (correct answer)
Last step of the four-step systems approach to conducting on incident investigation:	D. Preserve and document the scene (correct answer)
Which of the following should be a goal of an incident investigation?	C. Understand how and why safety protections failed or were insufficient (correct answer)
A job hazard analysis is an exercise in detective work. Your goal is to discover the following	F. All except B (correct answer)

Rarely is a hazard a simple case of one singular cause resulting in one singular effect. More frequently, many contributing factors tend to line up in a certain way to create the hazard.	A. True (correct answer)
Good hazard scenarios describe: Where it is happening (environment), who or what it is happening to (exposure), what precipitates the hazard (trigger), the outcome that would occur should it happen (consequence), and any other contributing factors	A. True (correct answer)
Sources of help in developing JHAs inside:	D. All of the above (correct answer)
Any time you revise a job hazard analysis, it is important to train all ___________ affected by the changes in the new job methods, procedures, or protective measures adopted.	B. Employees (correct answer)
Hazard or mitigation controls may be short and/or long term.	A. True (correct answer)
Periodically reviewing your job hazard analysis ensures that it remains current and continues to help reduce workplace accidents and injuries	A. True (correct answer)
There should be __________ process in place for JHAs.	A. A review and approval (correct answer)
Which of the following is a good practice when conducting interview for an incident investigation	A. Ask questions that avoid assigning blame for the incident (correct answer)
Which of the following is a line management role with regard to an organization’s safety and health program?	B. Implementing and maintaining the safety and health program (correct answer)
Although some state OSHA programs have specified ________ for maintaining records, many OSHA attorneys recommend records be maintained longer	A. 1 year (correct answer)
What does JHA stand for?	A. Job Hazard Analysis (correct answer)
Who is responsible for investigating an incident involving a temporary worker?	D. Staffing agency and host employer (correct answer)
As a rule of thumb, a safety and health program should be evaluated ________, at a minimum	D. Annually (correct answer)

Module 3: OSHA Focus Four Hazards Answers

Question	Answer
What is the leading cause of fatalities in construction?	Falls
In free fall, how far can a body travel in 0.5 seconds?	4 feet
In free fall, how far can a body travel in 1 second?	16 feet
In free fall, how far can a body travel in 2 seconds?	64 feet
In free fall, how far can a body travel in 3 seconds?	144 feet
When do you need fall protection?	When the exposure is 6 feet or more
What’s the first step for fall prevention?	Employer determining that the walk surfaces have the strength to support workers
What systems should be provided at a leading edge of 6 feet or more?	1. Guard rail system<br>2. Safety net system<br>3. Fall arrest system
Steps to create a safe job site from falls?	1. Inspect the job site and work surfaces for hazards<br>2. Determine that the work surfaces are strong<br>3. You find that work must be done near a 6 foot edge<br>4. Have guard rail systems constructed and inspected<br>5. Select and inspect the personal fall arrest system and make sure workers know how to use them<br>6. Begin work and ensure workers follow safe procedures
What’s required over covered walkways of at least 6 feet deep?	Guardrails
What is required for hoisting areas if the guardrail has to be removed to hoist?	Personal fall arrest system
What do you need around dangerous equipment?	Guardrails
What is a Safety Monitoring System?	A competent person responsible for recognizing and warning employees of fall hazards
What is a Warning Line System?	Barrier erected on a roof to warn workers that they are approaching an unprotected edge

When do you protect window openings?	When they are at least 6 feet high and the bottom edge is less than 39 inches above walking height
What do workers need when they are exposed to falling objects?	1. Hardhat<br>2. Barrier preventing objects from falling<br>3. Canopy structure<br>4. Barricade falling area from workers
What can guard rails be made of?	Wood, pipe, steel or wire rope
What has to be added to wire rope guard rails?	Flags
What are the three parts of a guard rail?	Top rail, mid rail and posts and when necessary toe board
What height is the top rail of a guard rail?	42 inches plus or minus 3 inches
When do you need mid rails in a guard rail?	When there is no wall of at least 21 inches
Where are mid rails installed?	Midway between top rail and walking level
What’s the minimum diameter of a top and mid rail?	1/4 inch
How often do you install flags on top rail?	Not more than 6 feet
What’s the minimum diameter of a pipe top and mid rail?	1.5 inches
What’s the minimum distance between a post made of pipe?	Not more than 8 feet
What’s the minimum diameter of a structural steel top and mid rail?	2x2x3/8 inch
What’s the minimum distance between a post made of structural steel?	Not more than 8 feet
What’s the minimum distance between intermediate members used between posts?	Not more than 19 inches apart
What’s the minimum opening in guard rail systems?	Not more than 19 inches
How far can Safety Net systems be installed below the surface?	No more than 30 feet

The Safety Net system must extend how far when it’s installed 5 feet below the surface?	8 feet
The Safety Net system must extend how far when it’s installed 5-10 feet below the surface?	10 feet
The Safety Net system must extend how far when it’s installed more than 10 feet below the surface?	13 feet
How often do you need to test safety nets?	Every 6 months, after repair, after moving, after installation
How many pounds are safety net drop test sand bags?	400 lbs
What is the diameter of a safety net drop test sand bag?	28-32 inches
What’s the minimum drop distance for safety net drop test sand bags?	42 inches
What’s the maximum mesh opening of safety net?	Must not exceed 36 inches or be longer than 6 inches on any side
What’s the minimum breaking weight of safety net?	5000 lbs
When more than one safety net is connected, the connection can’t be more than how far apart?	6 inches
Guard rail systems must be able to withstand the force of how any pounds at any point?	200
What is a PFAS?	Personal Fall Arrest System
What are the three parts of a PFAS?	Body harness, shock absorbing lanyard, secure anchors
What’s the maximum arresting force of a PFAS?	1,800 lbs
What’s the maximum distance you can fall with a PFAS?	6 feet
How many pounds of force should the anchor point of a PFAS withstand?	5,000 lbs
What’s the maximum deceleration distance of a PFAS?	3.5 feet
Vertical Lifelines have breaking strength of how much weight?	5,000 lbs
Vertical lifelines limit free fall to how far?	2 feet or less
Self-retracting lifelines have tensile load of how much weight?	3,000 lbs
Lifeline D rings have tensile strength of how much weight?	5,000 lbs
Lifeline D rings have tensile load of how much weight?	3,600 lbs

What is a positioning device system?	Harness rigged to allow worker to be supported on vertical surface with both hands free
How much weight does a positioning device system need to carry?	Twice the impact load or 3,000 lbs whichever is greater
How often should a warning line be flagged?	Every 6 feet
How low can a Warning Line be placed?	No less than 34 inches from work surface
How high can a Warning Line be placed?	No more than 39 inches from work surface
Warning Line stanchions must withstand what force?	16 lbs at 30 inches
Warning Line stanchions must have a minimum tensile strength of what?	500 lbs
What is a Controlled Access Zone (CAZ)?	An area below a brick laying or related work where only qualified people can be
Where is a Controlled Access Zone located?	Between 6-25 feet away from unprotected edge
Where are control lines erected in a Controlled Access Zone?	10-15 feet from edge
Where are flags located in a Controlled Access Zone?	6-foot intervals
What is the minimum breaking force of a Controlled Access Zone?	200 lbs
All covers must withstand what weight?	Twice the expected weight
Toe boards must withstand what weight?	50 lbs
What is a Fall Protection Plan?	A plan when normal fall protection systems are not feasible or would be more dangerous
How far do you stay away from overhead electrical lines during clean up?	10 feet
How do you know an electrical cord is safe for construction?	Marked National Electric Code Article 400.6 every 24 inches. Also marked with an “S.”
What is an ARC flash also called?	Incident Energy

Module 4: Personal Protective Equipment Answers

Question	Answer
PPE must be provided by the Ansi	ANSI
Exam gloves protect against Bloodbourne pathogens	Exam gloves
Which agency regulates PPE and the use	OSHA
Wearing PPE in the workplace is Required	Required
These are examples of PPE	Gloves
How frequently should Hazzard assessments be conducted	B and C
Hazzard assessments usually do not identify the	Location of storage of PPE
An example of approved PPE for eyes and face is	Full face shield
Ppe guidelines state it is the employers responsibility to	Provide PPE and train
How many different types of respirators and hard hats were mentioned in the video	1 and 1

The employer’s first responsibility upon identification of a workplace hazard is to eliminate the hazard with the proper PPE.	False
PPE removes the hazard.	False
PPE is the last line of defense against hazards.	True
Hazards existing in the workplace can be either physical or health related.	True
A poorly designed computer station can lead to a health related hazard.	False

Draw a line from the hot work situation on the left to the PPE that’s needed for the work on the right	1. Any type of hot work – Flame-resistant gloves and long sleeves 2. Overhead work – Fire-resistant head, ear, and shoulder covering 3. Hot work that exposes you to sparks and other flying particles – Welding helmet with UV filter 4. Work in a confined space that may become oxygen deficient – Respirator
Julio is preparing to preform overhead soldering on an indoor piping system. He dons a flame-resistant long sleeve shirt and flame-resistant gloves. What other fire-resistant clothing should Julio consider wearing to further protect himself from heat, UV radiation and sparks?	-Helmet -Ear covers -Shoulder covers
The hazards associated with performing hot work include:	– Heat – UV radiation – Sparks -Fumes
What type of protective clothing may be needed to protect hot work personnel?	– Flame-resistant gloves -Fire-resistant apron
Which of the following should you take into account when selecting a respirator for hot work?	– The types of contaminants within your work area – The potential for an oxygen deficient atmosphere – The concentration of contaminants in your work area
Which of the following protects you from exposure to airborne contaminants when ventilation is not adequately controlling exposure to hot work fumes and gases?	Respirator
When it’s properly filled out, what document can help identify the types of safety equipment that will be needed while performing a hot work task?	The hot work permit
Welding helmet with appropriate filters, goggles, and other eye protection are worn to prevent exposure to which of the following?	– Sparks – Flying particles – UV radiation – Molten metal
Exposure to hot work fumes and gases could cause serious health problems within which systems of the human body?	– Cardiovascular – Gastrointestinal – Reproductive
Besides hot work PPE, what other safety equipment might be needed in certain situations where hot work is performed?	– Fall protection devices – Warning signs – Explosion-proof equipment

Module 5: Health Hazards in Construction Answers

Question	Answer
Asbestos removal can be done by	c. only specially trained workers
An acute exposure is	D. both a and b above
Routes of exposure include	Inhalation, Absorption, Ingestion, Injection, Direct Contact
The most common form of crystalline silica is	quartz
Hazard communication training must include	d. both a and c
What are the elements that must be included on an SDS?	A. physical and chemical characteristics, health effects, exposure limits and the origin of the SDS.
Hand arm vibration can	d. all of the above
The best hearing protection is provided by	D. it depends on the overall noise reduction rating
Heat illness may present life-threatening symptoms including	D. all of the above
Noise may be hazardous when levels are above	B. 85 decibels as an 8-hour time-weighted average
Non-ionizing radiation can cause	D. all of the above
Which is the most advanced form of heat illness	D. Heat stroke
Strains, sprains, tendonitis, and carpal tunnel syndrome are examples of	B. ergonomic injuries
Poisonous plants such as poison ivy, poison oak, and poison sumac can	D. all of the above
Biological agents include	A. bacteria, viruses, fungi, and related microorganisms
Bloodborne pathogens include	D. all of the above
29 CFR 1926.1153 is OSHA standard covering what hazard	c. respirable crystalline silica in construction
The standard allows for respirable crystalline silica to how many micrograms over an 8-hour shift	A. 25
Which of the following is NOT an employer responsibility	D. guarantee of no exposure to respirable crystalline silica
Which of the following statements best describes acute silicosis	C. occurs after a few months to two years of extremely high exposure
Which of the following diseases is not associated with respirable crystalline silica	D. appendicitis
Approximately how many construction workers are exposed to respirable crystalline silica?	D. 2,000,000
Which of the following worker activities does not produce respirable size particles of crystalline silica	b. wetting
What is typically the easiest and most effective dust control?	B. wet method
Which of the following is true about fans?	A. they may be acceptable to supplement other control methods
What are the two types of respirators described in the control methods of OSHA respirable crystalline silica standard?	A. APP 10 and 25
Which of the following may be an appropriate method to reduce dust?	D. all of the above

According to table 1 of the respirable crystalline silica standard, for which of the following activities can a worker choose between a wet method and a dust collection method of dust control	c. jackhammers
According to table 1 for which of the following activities should a dust collection method be used	A. handheld power saws for cutting fiber cement
Which of the following choices is a work practice control that is repeated throughout table 1 of OSHA respirable crystalline silica standard	d. operate and maintain the tools in accordance with the manufacturer’s instructions
Which of the following choices is a work practice control that is repeatedly throughout table 1 of OSHA respirable crystalline silica standard?	D. operate and maintain the tools in accordance with the manufacturer’s instructions
According to table 1 of the respirable crystalline silica standard for which of the following activities should a wet method of dust control be used	E. both a and B
Which of the following activities has a respirator requirement stated in table 1	A. handheld equipment tuckpointing
According to the respirable crystalline silica standard, employers must provide hazard communication in accordance with what other OSHA standard?	b. hazard communication standard
According to the respirable crystalline silica standard, employers must conduct record-keeping in accordance with what other OSHA standard?	A. access to employee exposure and medical records standard
For Employees who are entitled to have free medical examinations provided by their employer under the RCSS, how often should the periodic exam be made available	A. every three years
According to the RCSS, employers must provide respiratory protection in accordance with what other OSHA standard?	C. respiratory protection standard
OSHA RCSS is predicted to prevent how many new cases per year	D. 900
Which of the following is not one of the criteria that employers must apply when using alternative exposure control methods	D. focus 4 hazard eval
For the best effect, an exhaust fan should be positioned	C. in an open window or door with a second window or door open across the room

Module 6: Stairways and Ladders Answers

Question	Answer
The standard ladder configuration is called single cleat	A. true
The combined weight of people and equipment on a ladder is called the maximum intended load	A. true
Which ladder system allows for two-way traffic up and down	B. double cleated ladder
Stairs should be installed between 30 degrees and	c. 50 degrees
Stairs, ladders, or ramps are required at an elevation break of ___ or more	B. 19 inches
Each of the following is true of temporary stairs except	b. lighting is not necessary
Heavy-duty type 1A ladders have a ___ lbs weight limit	c. 300
Rated load capacity refers to the total weight the ladder can sustain	A. true
Common ladder materials include each except	c. plastic
Inspect the location of a ladder for	d. all of the above
Ladders must be inspected	D. all of the above
You must tag a damaged ladder “do not use” and remove it from the work area	A. true
Position the ladder using the	B. 4-1
It’s generally okay to carry materials while going up or down a ladder	B. false
Under Federal OSHA, it’s okay to use the top two steps of a step ladder	B. false
The top section of an extension on a straight ladder should	B. not be used by itself
Rungs of straight ladders don’t need to be skid-resistant	B. false
A landing platform or fixed ladder over 20 feet height must be constructed every 20 ft if there is no cage, well, or ladder safety device	A. true
Metal fixed ladders must be painted to resist corrosion	A. true
The climbing side of a ladder must be at least ___ inches from any other object	b. 30
Toe boards should be installed around floor openings, landing, and stairwells to prevent materials and tools from falling to lower levels	A. true
Straight ladders must support ______ times the maximum intended load	C. 4

Module 7: Concrete and Masonry Construction Answers

Question	Answer
Employers must not place construction loads on concrete structures or portions of concrete structures unless a qualified person determines that the structure or portion of the structure is capable of supporting the loads	True
Which of the following determines when formwork can be removed from cast-in-place concrete?	Employer
Lifting inserts which are embedded or otherwise attached to precast concrete members, other than the tilt-up members, shall be capable of supporting at least ______ times the maximum intended load applied or transmitted to them	4
Concrete mixers with greater than 1 cubic yard capacity must have guardrails on each side of the skip	True
According to Subpart Q, which of the following personal protective equipment is required when an employee applies a cement/sand/water mixture through a hose?	Head and face equipment
A masonry saw must be guarded with a semicircular enclosure over the blade	True
The limited access zone of a masonry wall must be which of the following?	All of the above
Support for precast concrete can be removed when permanent connections are completed	True
Silica exposure in the form of dust particles is only harmful if the worker is exposed to it for long periods of time	True
Employees should not be _____ the jack during tensioning operations	Behind

Module 8: Confined Spaces Answers

Statement	Answer
Bodily injury due to slips and falls is considered a physical hazard from conditions involving: Surface residues	Physical hazard
When sufficient ventilation cannot be obtained without blocking the means of access, employees in the confined space should be protected by a(n): Airline respirator	Protective equipment
Adequate precautions must be taken to prevent employee exposure to atmospheres containing less than 19.5% oxygen	True
All employees required to enter a confined space should be instructed on: The nature of the hazards involved, the necessary precautions to be taken, the use of protective and emergency equipment required	Instructions
A secondary irritant atmosphere is: One that may produce toxic effects on the body	Classification
The following is classified as a confined space: Sewers and Storage tanks	Classification
This type of confined space is used for many purposes, including the storage of water and chemicals: Tank	Classification
Entry and exit time can be a significant physical limitation: And directly relates to potential hazards in a confined space	Physical limitation
When controls are used to reduce the level of atmospheric contaminants to acceptable levels, testing must be conducted as often as necessary to ensure that the atmosphere remains safe	Testing frequency
Hazards specific to a confined space can be categorized by: The material stored or used, The activity carried out, and The external environment	Hazard categorization

Which of the following is considered a confined space hazard?	Both A and B
A permit-required confined space will often have which of the following hazards?	Hazardous atmosphere
Each year, how many confined space deaths and injuries occur?	Hundreds
Which of the following is true about confined spaces?	Both A and B
Which of the following is a reason why a confined space permit is required?	Both B and C
Excavation involving vapors and storage tanks are examples of a permit-required confined scape because both have _____________.	The potential to contain hazardous atmospheres
Example of a storage structure in which someone can become trapped or suffocate is:	Storage tank with inward-sloping walls
A permit-required confined space may have an interior shape that could:	Trap or asphyxiate
What is an employer required to do when a permit space is present at a worksite, even though employees do not need to enter the space?	Take steps to prevent employees from entering the space
Which of the following is a requirement prior to entry into a permit space?	All three, A., B., and C
According to OSHA standards in Subpart AA, 1926.1204 when must be a written permit space program be made available to employees or their representatives?	Prior to operations
An employer must ensure the following for entry into a permit space:	Safe methods for entering and exiting space.
Which of the following is required before entering a confined space?	Atmospheric testing
Aside from chemical, oxygen, and entrapment hazards, confined spaces may be hazardous due to:	All of the above
For occupancy of a confined space, when must hazard evaluation tests be conducted?	Both A and B
Oxygen deficiency is defined as an atmosphere with less than:	19.5% oxygen
Bleeding, ventilation, and flushing are all examples of:	Confined space hazard controls
Controlling and removing potential hazardous substances or hazardous energy from entering a confined space is the control technique known as:	Isolation
What does blanking mean?	Disconnecting or capping lines that may empty into the permit space
Electrical, pneumatic, hydraulic, or mechanical energy hazards may require:	LOTO/COHE hazard control procedures
Each person serving as an attendant must be listed on the confined space permit	True
The CSE supervisor must:	Authorize and sign the entry permit
Confined space rescue equipment includes:	Tripod with hand winch or hoist, and fully body harness with lifeline
Monitoring equipment in confined spaces must measure which of the following hazards?	Oxygen, flammable gases and vapors, toxic and other air contaminants.

To safely use air monitoring equipment in a confined space, an operator must	Follow manufacturer’s instruction
CSE permit equipment includes equipment for:	Ventilation, personal protection, air testing and monitoring
The attendant may leave the opening of the confined space:	Only when relieved by another attendant
When may the attendant enter a confined space?	none of the above
The entrant should notify the attendant whenever the entrant:	All of the above
Confined space entrants may exit a space when approved by the CSE supervisor. However, they must exit a space whenever:	They detect prohibited conditions
Even though the employer is responsible for providing confined space training, the cost of the training is paid by the employee.	False
Additional training is required whenever there is evidence that permit space entry procedures have changed	True
Each member of the confined space emergency rescue team must practice emergency skills:	At least annually
Emergency rescue personnel for confined spaces may:	Both A and B above
Employer-approved rescue services must be informed of hazards in advance by:	The employer
For confined space operations, off-site emergency rescue services:	May be used if qualified and trained
What is required when a confined space job is completed?	Secure space, cover plates…
Permit-required confined space work is potentially hazardous:	Always
In a confined space, hot work may be preformed, but _________________.	Requires a special permit
Changing conditions in a permit-required confined space may require:	All of the above
What two inert gases are often used to purge flammable or explosive vapors from a confined space?	Carbon dioxide or nitrogen
Which of the following might be found in a permit space?	All three, A,B, and C
The confined space permit is:	An authorized and …
Before work begins, the competent person:	Identifies all confined spaces where employees may work
A confined space entry permit includes:	Both A and B
Excavations with sloughing walls, grain silos, and trenches are examples of permit-required confined spaces because each contains materials that:	Have the potential for caving in or engulfment
The confined space entry team includes which of the following?	A and C only

Module 9: Cranes, Derricks, Hoists, Elevators and Conveyors Answers

Statement	Answer
A Certified Person is	An individual who has passed certain requirements set forth for operating cranes as outlined by an accrediting organization such as NCCCO and CIC.
A Competent person is	An individual who is capable of identifying existing and predictable hazards in the surroundings or working conditions which are unsanitary, hazardous or dangerous to employees, and who has authority to take prompt corrective measures to eliminate them.
NCCA stands for	National Commission for Certifying Agencies
No crane or hoist shall be placed in service on a Turner project until	An annual third party inspection and supplemental reports are submitted to Turner indicating that the crane or hoist meets the manufacturer’s inspection criteria.
If the manufacturer’s inspection criterion does not exist	A structural engineer, familiar with crane or hoist’s design and dynamics, may develop or use existing inspection criteria.
Turner requires all contractors using cranes to have a	3rd-party inspection completed on site after the crane is set up, prior to use and quarterly thereafter. Documentation of this inspection must be submitted to Turner. This does NOT include small delivery cranes 5 TONS in capacity or less.
__________ or ____________ will require the 3rd party inspector to be on the jobsite the entire time of this activity	Tower crane erection – Jumping a section of the crane
Turner requires all crane operators be experienced on the model of crane to be operated and certified by	The National Commission for Certification of Crane Operators (NCCCO) – Crane Institute of America. Copies of their certifications must be submitted to Turner. If other licensing is required by state or local agencies to operate a crane, the operator’s credentials will be required for review by Turner prior to mobilization.
Any lift exceeding ___ of the cranes rated chart capacity (as configured), or lifts involving ____ or more cranes, or some other operation with exceptional level of risk shall be considered a critical lift. A critical lift plan must be submitted to Turner supervision for review prior to the lift.	75% – 2
A pre-planning meeting to discuss the critical lift will be held in the field with the crew to discuss, at a minimum, what 5 topics?	Calculation of gross weight load – Load chart calculations – Radius measurements anticipated during the lift – Weather and soil conditions – Overhead high voltage power line clearances. Calculations for the lift are to be reviewed during this meeting.
The swing radius of cranes must be	Properly barricaded at all times while working on site.
Wire rope, its attachments, fittings, sheaves and safety devices must be inspected	According to the manufacturer’s recommendations. Copies of the inspections must be submitted to Turner.
Wedge sockets and fittings must be the proper size to match the wire rope and must move to hold the wire rope	Under load. The dead end must be terminated according to ANSI B30.5 and must not be attached, in any manner, to the live side of the load line.
An _______ device is required on all lifting lines except those engaged in driving piles.	Anti two-block
A qualified and certified rigger must inspect the rigging	Prior to each shift. Only qualified and certified riggers may rig on this project.
All windows in cabs must be	Safety glass that produces no visible distortion that will interfere with the safe operation of the machine.
Cranes, hoists, boom trucks and derricks shall not be installed or operated within	20 Feet of overhead power lines unless they have been de-energized or otherwise meet OSHA’s Crane standard requirements.

Outriggers are to be ______ and have _______, except for a pick and move lift, unless…	-Fully extended -Proper blocking
Cribbing shall be manufactured type only and should be at least ___ times the diameter…	-3X
Weight, must be determined _(When?)__. Turner may request a subcontractor to have t…	-Prior to lifting the load. -The subcontractor’s.
All personnel performing rigging and signaling must be certified through _____ and/or …	-Education -Training
Authorized riggers must bear an __________ on their hat or don a badge.	“authorized rigger” sticker
The use of a crane suspended personnel platform is ________ on Turner projects unless…	-Prohibited -Conventional methods to do the work…
Material Hoists must meet what 3 requirements?	•All entrances to hoists must be protected by substantial gates or bars, which guard the full width of the landing entrance. •Operating rules must be posted at the operator’s station along with the notice “No Riders Allowed”. •Load capacity shall be clearly posted outside the car.
Personnel Hoists must meet what 6 requirements?	• Hoist-way doors or gates shall be at least 6’6″ high, be self-closing, and shall have a mechanical lock, which cannot be operated from the landing side. • All entrances to hoists must be protected by substantial gates or bars, which guard the full width of the landing entrance. • Hoists shall be inspected on a weekly basis. Hoists shall also be inspected after exposure to winds exceeding 35mph. • All hoists shall be inspected and tested at not more than three-month intervals. • All hoists shall have a “No Smoking” sign posted in the car and a fully charged fire extinguisher available for use. • Load capacity shall be clearly posted inside and outside the car.
No person shall erect a tower or lattice boom crane unless the crane owner has verified what 2 things?	• The crane manufacturer is currently in business; and • The original equipment manufacturer’s parts must be available to repair major components of the tower crane should such repair become necessary
The tower crane owner, renter or lessee has submitted documentation including to Turner detailing how the tower crane will be supported and attached to the building. Such documentation shall be reviewed and sealed by with expertise in structural design that is registered in the state where the work will take place	-Plans or drawings -A professional engineer
No person shall erect, climb (jump), lower or dismantle a tower or lattice boom crane unless;	-A qualified person who is factory trained and who is experienced with the specific crane being used is designated by the crane owner, renter or lessee to supervise the operation; -The supervisor has submitted a detailed job hazard analysis, sequence of operation (assemble/disassemble, climb, etc) with means/methods, and manufacturer’s instructions for the operation to Turner. -The crane owner, renter, or lessee has designated a single competent person to be the dedicated safety representative that is present at all times during the operations; -The supervisor has determined that each member of the crew designated to work on the operation has received documented on-the-job or classroom training. -The supervisor and the dedicated safety representative have convened a site meeting with all members of the crew in order to ensure that each member understands their particular task(s) and the hazards associated with those tasks and the overall operations. -The supervisor ensures that site-specific procedures incorporating written instructions provided by the crane manufacturer are followed for the operation. Such procedures shall be maintained on site -Or, A professional engineer registered in the state in which the work is taking place who is familiar with the type of equipment involved and the procedures of the operation is present at the site, monitors the operation and provides advice to the supervisor regarding engineering safety aspects of the operation.
No contractor or qualified person designated as a supervisor of an operation shall:	• Permit any individual to operate any crane that is used to erect, climb (jump), lower or dismantle a crane unless such individual has been certified by National Commission for Certification of Crane Operators or Crane Institute of America to operated that specific type of crane; • Permit any individual to provide hand signals or verbal communications to a crane operator or directing the operation of the crane unless such an individual is certified by National Commission for Certification of Crane Operators or Crane Institute of America. • Permit an individual to perform rigging duties associated with the operation of a crane unless the individual is certified by National Commission for Certification of Crane Operators or Crane Institute of America .
Immediately following what 3 circumstances should a 3rd party crane inspector who has been certified by National Commission for Certification of Crane Operators or Crane Institute of America and is knowledgeable of the manufacturer’s operating design and specifications for the crane to be erected, conduct a thorough inspection of the crane covering all items as required by OSHA?	o Erection/assembly of a crane, o The climbing (jumping) or lowering of a tower crane o The expiration of any 90 day period following a previous inspection if the crane has not been raised or lowered in the intervening period.
Who shall submit to Turner documentation reflecting the results of the crane inspections required?	The subcontractor or crane owner
A dedicated safety representative shall periodically inspect all _ and __ while the crane remains on site. All unresolved defects and practices that affect the safe operation of the crane shall be reported to the construction manager and immediate and appropriate action to suspend the use of the crane until all safety defects have been corrected.	Rigging and crane equipment

Module 10: Ergonomics Answers

What is the ergonomically optimum body posture for performing all physical jobs?	Midrange
Job rotation, modified work pace, and frequent breaks are all examples of _____ controls.	Administrative
Higher workers’ compensation premiums, increased employee turnover, absenteeism, and decreased efficiency are common results of:	Musculoskeletal disorders
Employees returning from extended periods away from work should:	Regain their normal work pace over time
Those areas of the body where nerves, blood vessels, and/or tendons lie just beneath the skin are highly susceptible to _____ injuries.	Pressure point
Which personal protective equipment can reduce the risk of pressure points?	Knee and elbow pads
In order for an employee who suffers muscle strain to heal, the employer must provide and the employee must take advantage of:	Recovery time
How often might ergonomic training be offered in the workplace?	Annually
Willard runs an industrial, hand-operated floor sander four days a week. Although he wears his PPE religiously, he is still at risk for all these potential injuries EXCEPT:	Hearing loss
Hazards that can arise due to risk factors such as cold stress can be best prevented or eliminated by _____ controls.	Environmental

Musculoskeletal injuries can ____________________	Both B and D
Workers who must do which of the following are at greatest risk from experiencing work related musculoskeletal disorders?	All of the above
Good ergonomics attempts to ______________	Fit or adapt the job to the worker
Ergonomics aims to design systems and tasks so as to _____________	Improve human safety, health, comfort, and performance
The illness/injury occurs when the blood vessels of the hand are damaged as a result of repeated exposure to vibration from long periods of time?	Both A and B
Ergonomic-related disorders principally include which of the following?	All of the above
Back disorders are frequently caused by the cumulative effect of faulty body mechanics such as which of the following?	All of the above
Most back disorders caused by______________	chronic exposures or long term injuries
MSD is an acronym for which of the following?	Musculoskeletal Disorder
The primary cause of musculo skeletal disorder and other ergonomic related injury and illness include.	A,B and D
Which statement below is most accurate when discussing awkward posture?	Create stress and fatigue on the musculo-skeletal system
These type of controls include designing work stations, tool, and equipment to minimize repetition, forces and posture problems.	Engineering Control
Which statement below is accurate for Personal Protective Equipment (PPE) controls?	Should be considered only when engineering and/ or administrative controls fail to mitigate the hazard
Secondary causes of MSD’s include environmental factors. These environmental factors include?	All except answer A
Which statement below is true?	MSD’s can become long-term, disabling health problems that keep you from working and enjoying life
Effective ergonomics programs include which element in the following list?	All of the above and more
Your risk of an MSD is increased if you ________	Have to lift, push, or pull while stooping
As discussed in this training, using conventional hand tool repeatedly can lead to which of the following?	Muscle strain, Serious injury like carpal tunnel syndrome or tendinitis
Body movement where “energy is exerted to cause movement”?	Force

Module 11: Excavations Answers

Statement	Answer
When your trench is deeper than 4 feet and hazards may be present air monitoring must be done before entry	A. true
Excavation safety standards have introduced in 1989	A. true
To be classified as type a the soil cannot be	E. all of the above
Each of the following is a type b soil except	D. sand
A soil are usually clays and cemented soil such as caliche and hardpan	A. true
Which of the following are common soil classification tests	E. all except c
The most important distinction between stable rock types is	C. degree of stability
The definition of type c 60 soil is provided by manufacturers to allow the competent person an opportunity to use vertical shores or other protective systems in accordance with tables provided by the manufacturer	A. true
A defining feature of stable rock is that it will	B. remain intact while exposed
OSHA requires that the competent person perform two visual and two manual tests	B. False
A soil cannot be type a if it is	D. all of the above
Which of the following statements is true of kick out	D. all of the above
Which soil type is the most common	B. Type b
True or false shores must be pumped to a minimum of 750 lbs of pressure but more is recommended	A. true
Type b soils afford how many options of protection	D. four
True or false mixed oak timbers have a greater bending strength per square inch than douglas fir.	B. false
True or false aluminum hydraulic shoring permits both installation and removal without entering the trench	A. true
In type c soil the angle o repose is very low how many degrees must the angle be	D. 34 degrees
The struts of a screw jack system must be adjusted manually which creates a hazard because	B. be in the trench in order to adjust the strut
The depth at which an excavation needs attention from a registered pro engineer is	D. 20 feet
T or F all systems have a set of manufacturers tabulated data to be used for proper design and installation of the equipment	A. True
Placing a shield between the side of an excavation and the work area can minimize the risk in the event of a cave in	A. true
Shoring and shielding can be custom built from tabulated data approved by an engineer	A. true
When exposed to vehicular traffic your excavation	D. all of the above
Surface encumbrance	B. hazard
Eye contact outside radius	true
Water accumulation all are true except	D. special shields are not allowed
Walkway rails	B. 6ft

Module 12: Fire Protection and Prevention Answers

Statement	Answer
Many fire extinguishers can be used on more than one class of fire and are called multipurpose extinguishers. True or False?	True
In the event of a fire, a safe and _________ response depends on how well employees are prepared for emergencies.	Speedy
Class _________ extinguishers are pressurized with non-flammable carbon dioxide gas, dry chemical, wet chemical, or clean agent/halogen.	B
Class _________ fire extinguishers are used on fires involving energized electrical equipment.	C
Fire ___________ are designed to react quickly and independently of one another so that only those detectors in the affected area activate.	Sprinklers
The two primary types of smoke alarms in use are _______________ and photoelectric alarms.	Ionization
A class A fire is an combustible/flammable liquid fire. True or False?	False
There are only two types of fire extinguishers for fighting all types of fires. True or False?	False
Which of the following elements are required for sustaining a fire?	a. Oxygen b. Fuel c. Heat Source
What is the primary cause of death due to fires?	Smoke inhalation

Which class of fire extinguisher is appropriate for a fire involving electrical/energized electrical equipment?	Class C
To extinguish a fire with a portable extinguisher, a person must:	Both choices are correct.
While you are working at your desk, you smell fire. Within seconds, the fire alarm sounds. What should you do?	Remain calm and immediately exit the building.
You need to decide whether to fight a small fire using a portable fire extinguisher. Which situation indicates a small fire for which it may be appropriate to use a portable fire extinguisher?	Smoke is accumulating on the ceiling, but visibility is good.
You hear your supervisor tell another supervisor that a fire drill will take place later today. When the fire alarm sounds that afternoon, you should:	Calmly and safely use your assigned exit route to exit the building.
Which class of fire extinguisher is appropriate for a fire involving a flammable liquid?	Class B
You are evacuating your workplace due to a fire. Which of these is an inappropriate action to take to safely follow your company’s emergency action plan?	Go directly to the parking garage and drive your car home.
You need to decide whether to fight a small fire using a portable fire extinguisher. Which situation indicates a small fire for which it may be appropriate to use a portable fire extinguisher?	The room temperature is only slightly increased.
Which of the following components is included in an employer’s fire prevention plan?	All answer choices are components of a fire prevention plan.
You see an obvious fire hazard with electrical equipment in a part of the building in which you infrequently work. Which option is the best fire prevention practice?	You should report the hazard as soon as possible.

What creates a fire?	Source of fuel, heat, and oxygen
Class A fire?	Basic solids; paper or wood
Class B fire?	Flammable liquids; gasoline
Class C fire?	Electrical fires; cords/motors
Class D fire?	Combustible metals like sodium, magnesium
Electrical cords should inspected for?	Cuts/abrasions
How to stop spread of welding sparks?	Use welding curtain
Welding should be done in?	Designated safe areas/stations
Prior to welding, area needs to be cleaned of?	Combustibles, combustible materials
If adequate requirements aren’t sufficient, what’s needed prior to welding/cutting?	A fire watch, to ensure no flames appear even after welding is complete
Areas with fuel or fueling are what kind of areas?	Smoke-free areas
Motors should be turned off when?	Fueling/servicing
An extinguisher is required within how many feet of a fuel provider such as a pump?	75′
Combustible materials should not be stored outdoors within how many feet of a building/structure?	10′
Max distance to a fire extinguisher is to not exceed how many feet?	100′
What helps to identify flammable items on a jobsite?	MSDS
Quantities of combustible liquids in excess of 25 gal must be stored?	In a cabinet
Flammable liquids may only be used where there are no other open flames within how many ft?	50′
Type A Extinguishers	Will put out ordinary fires; wood/paper
Type B Extinguishers	Will put out flammable liquids; gasoline/oil
Type C Extinguishers	Will put out electrical fires
Type D Extinguishers	Will put out flammable metals
Class A extinguisher number distinction?	The higher the number, the more water it holds, the more fire it will extinguish.
Class B extinguisher number distinction?	The number states the approx. number of sq. ft. it can extinguish
PASS	Pull, Aim, Squeeze, Sweep

Module 13: Materials Handling, Use and Disposal Answers

Question	Answer
Which of the following are forklift rules of the road?	All of the above
Inspect your forklift and read instructions:	Prior to use
Conveyor systems present many hazards when in operation. However, when shut down for maintenance, what is especially important?	Lockout and tagout the system
The forklift operator should know weight of materials to be moved, limitation of equipment and load capacity chart. The operator should also ensure that:	Surfaces are level, free of hazard, and designed to withstand load
The person responsible for give line of site communication to the crane operator is called a ____.	Crane Signal Person
Select the 7 safe lifting considerations	– Weight of the object<br>- Location (position of load)<br>- Frequency of lifts<br>- Stability of the Load<br>- Size of material and hand grip<br>- Avoidance of twisting and stooping<br>- Other environmental factors
Many of the hazards involve in material handling are common and very predictable. Hazards can be found in both handling and storing materials. Improper storage hazards include which of the following?	Stacked
Before starting work, precent accidents by:	Looking for hazards in pathway, determining weight/ stability of load, ensuring level, clean, available set-down point
Which of the following are common causes of material handling injuries?	Overexertion, incorrect or over lifting, dropped and falling objects
Common injuries resulting from handling materials include:	Back injuries, crushing injuries, cuts, and lacerations
Overexertion is the #1 cause of workplace injuries. Overexertion is caused by exerting excessive effort of force when:	Holding, carrying, throwing, lifting, pushing, or pulling
When you can’t avoiding lifting or carrying, which if these should you do?	Break load into smaller pieces, keep load close to your body, move slowly and maintain a clear line of vision
You must move a heavy compressed gas cylinder about 50 ft. There is no cart, or dolly, nor any lifting equipment. What should you do?	Get help, use the two man lift and carry
When using hand trucks, dollies, or carts:	Place heavy objects on bottom & maintain clear line of vision
To lift loads safely, you should bend your body at the	knees
The forklift operator should know weight of material to be moved, limitations of equipment and load capacity chart. The operator should also ensure that:	Surfaces are level, free of hazards, and designed to withstand loads
Inspect your forklift and read instruction:	Prior to use
Which of the following is a forklift rule of the road?	Pedestrians always have the right of way, drive slowly with eyes on the road, no riders unless equipped with approved seat
Conveyor systems present many hazards when in operation. However, when shut down for maintenance, what is especially important?	Lockout and tagout the system
The crane operator	Must be trained, experienced and certified to operate their crane
Utilizing an effective “safe lift” plan for all crane activities will:	Identify critical elements for planning and document actions taken to ensure a safe lift

The person responsible for giving line of site communication to the crane operator is called a:	A crane signal person
The signal person on a crane is responsible for:	Ensuring that all personnel are a safe distance away and communicating their intentions before signaling the crane to move
Effective safe work procedures are required:	Because they help prevent injuries and incidents from occurring
Communication is key to working safely on a jobsite. Which of the following is the best way to ensure you have effectively communicated?	Make verbal contact and follow up with a verbal or visual acknowledgement that all was understood
When inspecting a wire rope sling, you find that 7 wires in 1 strand are broken. What should you do?	Do not use the sling and dispose of the sling.
To transport or lift materials with a crane; slings, chains, grabs, shackles, and/or ropes are considered part of the :	Lifting system
As a rule, grab hooks, spread bars, or any other rigging attachments should have a lifting capacity ___ of the sling being used.	Equal to or greater than that
Synthetic slings should be inspected by a competent person for abnormal wear, powdered fiber between strands broken or cut fibers and much more. What should also be permanently affixed to the sling?	ID tag stating size, grade rated capacity and manufacturer
Evaluate the route over which material will have to be transported and the storage location. Consider the load capacity of flooring, location of emergency equipment, such as fire extinguishers exits, sprinklers. What else?	The ease of loading/unloading and general access and egress. The compatibility of materials and other activity in the immediate area, and ensure ventilation is adequate by reviewing the intake and exhaust locations.
Structural steel, poles, pipe, bar stock, and other cylindrical materials, unless racked, shall be stacked and blocked so as to prevent spreading or tilting. Pipe, unless racked, shall not be stacked higher than	5 ft
Lumbar must not be stacked any higher than:	20 ft with mechanical equipment and 16 ft when stacked manually
A clean and organized job site is a key component of a safe jobsite. Clean up must occur routinely during the day and not just at the end of the work shift, Work areas shall be inspected ___ for adequate housekeeping.	Daily
Never allow materials, supplies, or obstructions to block?	An access route & an egress route
Prior to disposal of waste material you must determine the proper method of disposal and PPE. Always consult the __ for all materials prior to disposal to ensure the proper disposal methods and PPE are being considered.	Safety Data Sheet or SDS

When debris cannot be handled by chutes, the material may be dropped into a designated area. What is needed if this is done?	The drop zone must enclosed with barricades, warning signs shall be posted at all debris landing areas, and warning signs shall be posted at each level to falling debris
The combined weight of people and equipment on a ladder is called the “maximum intended load”	True
The standard ladder configuration is called “single cleat”	True
Which ladder system allows for two way traffic up and down?	Double cleated
Unprotected sided and edges are where there are no rail system in place at a height of _ inches or higher	36
Stairs, ladders, or ramps are required at an elevation break of __ or more.	19 in
Toeboards should be installed around floor openings, landing, and stairwells to prevent material and tools from falling to lower levels	True
Stairs should be installed b/w 30 degrees and:	50 degrees
Light duty ladders have a maximum weight limit of :	200 lb
Fixed ladders 24 ft or higher must be equipped with:	A cage. Self retracting lifeline, rest platform
Heavy duty, industrial type 1A ladder have a _ pound weight limitation	300
Rated loaded capacity refers to the total weight the ladder can sustain	True
Common ladder materials include each of the following except	Plastic
Ladders must be inspected	On a periodic basis, prior to use, after any use
___ use a stepladder as a straight ladder	Never
Do not extend your body beyond the rails of a ladder	True
Position the ladder correctly, using the __ rule	4 to 1
You must tag a damaged ladder “do not use” and remove it from the work area	True
Each of the following is true of temporary stairs EXCEPT:	Lighting is not necessary
It’s generally ok to carry materials while going up or down a ladder:	False
Modern ladders are so well-made that safety and inspection are rarely a concern	False
The top section of an extension on a straight ladder should:	Not be used by itself
Rungs of straight ladders shouldn’t need to be skid resistant	False
Under Federal OSHA, it’s ok to use the top two steps of a stepladder	False
The maximum length of a double section ladder is:	48
Metal fixed ladders must be painted to resist corrosion	True
The climbing side of a fixed ladder must be at least ___ inches from any other side	30
Which of the following must be provided when the length of climb of a fixed ladder exceeds 24 ft:	Ladder section offset from adjacent sections, landing platforms every 50 ft or less, cage or well provided

Module 14: Motor Vehicles, Mechanized Equipment and Marine Operations; Rollover Protective Structures and Overhead Protection; and Signs, Signals and Barricades Answers

Question	Answer
Must be provided and used when inflating, mounting, or dismounting tires installed on split rims, or rims equipped with locking rings or similar devices.	True
Bulldozer and scraper blades, end-loader buckets, dump bodies, and similar equipment, must be fully lowered and never blocked when being repaired or when not in use.	False
Must be provided on spur railroad tracks where a rolling car could contact other cars being worked, enter a building, work or traffic area.	Derail and/or bumper blocks
OSHA specifies that for overhead power-lines rated 50 kV. or below, minimum clearance between the lines and any part of the crane or load must be:	10 feet
Any overhead wire must be considered to be an energized line UNLESS and UNTIL person owning line or electrical utility indicate that it is not an energized line and it has been visibly grounded.	True
Flammable liquids have “flash points” below	100 degrees Fahrenheit
All vehicles in use must be checked _______ to assure that all parts, equipment, and accessories are in safe operating condition.	At the beginning of each shift
Truck with dump bodies must be equipped with positive means of support, permanently attached, and capable of being locked in position to prevent accidental lowering of the body during maintenance or inspection.	True
On site motor vehicle must be equipped with at least two headlights and two taillights in operable condition.	True
Motor Vehicles operating within an off highway jobsite need to have an operable condition:	All of the above
All earthmoving equipment must have a service braking system capable of stopping and holding the equipment when:	100%, fully loaded
Pneumatic-tired earth moving equipment whose maximum speed exceeds what speed shall be equipped with fenders?	Be equipped with fenders on all wheels
Lift trucks, stackers, etc., must have the ______ clearly posted on the vehicle so as to be clearly visible to the operator.	Rated Capacity
Earthmoving or compacting equipment which has an obstructed view to the rear requires an OPERABLE reverse signal alarm distinguishable from the surrounding noise level or…	An observer to signal…
Must be provided across the top of the head block to prevent the cable from jumping out of the sheaves.	Guards
Steam hose leading to a steam hammer or jet pipe must be securely attached to the hammer with an adequate length of _______________ to prevent whipping in the event the joint at the hammer is broken.	At least 1/4-inch diameter chain or cable
During pile driving operations, steam line controls must consist of two shutoff valves, one of which must be a quick-acting lever type within easy reach of the hammer operator.	True
Required for the leads to prevent the hammer from being raised against the head block.	Stop Blocks
First aid treatment and planning is only necessary if emergency medical care is more than 30 minutes from the jobsite.	False
All equipment used in site clearing operations must be equipped with overhead and rear canopy guards meeting OSHA requirements.	True
OSHA requires in the vicinity of each barge at least one U.S. Coast Guard-approved 30-inch life-ring with not less than 90 feet of the line attached, and at least:	One portable or permanent ladder meeting OSHA requirements
OSHA requires that ramps from access of vehicles to or between barges must be of adequate strength, be well maintained, properly secured and ___________	Provided with side boards

When working on barges, OSHA specifically requires that decks and other working surfaces be maintained in a safe condition.	True
The raised frame, as around a hatchway in the deck, to keep out water.	Coaming
All bidirectional machines, such as rollers, compacters, front-end loaders, bulldozers, and similar equipment, must be equipped with a horn, distinguishable from the surrounding noise level.	True
OSHA specifies that when accessing a ship, obstructions laid on or across the gangway are:	Prohibited
Employees may be exposed to which of the following during site clearing operations where precautions should be implemented if harmful exposures potentially exist:	All of the above
OSHA requires that marine operations involving “material handling” must be performed in conformance with applicable requirements OSHA of Part 1918, “Safety and Health Regulations for Long-shoring”	True

Module 15: Safety and Health Programs Answers

Question	Answer
Exemplary workplaces share all these common characteristics EXCEPT:	Strict adherence to original safety plan
Where can anyone go to access OSHA regulations, expert advisors, directives, publications, and other tools?	OSHA’s website
Management commitment and employee involvement in a safety program is demonstrated by all these actions EXCEPT:	Union oversight alone, if the worksite is unionized
Comprehensive worksite analysis should involve all these hazards EXCEPT:	Corrected
What may employers who are accepted into the Safety and Health Achievement Recognition Program (SHARP) receive from OSHA?	Exemption from programmed inspections
An effective hazards identification process will meet all these criteria EXCEPT:	Secret
Employers who implement effective health and safety programs should expect all these results EXCEPT:	Decreased, though slight, productivity
An effective occupational safety and health program will include all of the following elements EXCEPT:	Systematic identification and random evaluation
OSHA’s Strategic Partnership Program is intended to improve workplace safety by:	Building cooperative relationships among groups of employers and employees
At the end of how many months should an employer review the OSHA Form 300 for completeness, accuracy and correction of any deficiencies?	Twelve

Module 16: Scaffolds Answers

Question	Answer
The platform in a two-point scaffold should be no more than ____ inches wide.	36
How is a float scaffold supported?	By two bearers hung from an overhead support
A pump jack scaffold must be fitted with two ____ gripping mechanisms to prevent slippage.	Positive
The gaps between planks on the platforms of supported scaffolds should not exceed ____.	1 inch
To avoid suspension trauma, when suspended, the worker must limit restriction points and move their arms and legs to maintain circulation.	True
What is a scaffold?	A temporary elevated platform used to support workers and/or materials
The mid-rails of guardrails must be capable of withstanding how many pounds of force applied at any point in any direction?	150
Scaffolds shall not be moved horizontally while employees are on them unless:	The surface on which the scaffold is being moved is within 1 degree of level
Toe board or mesh fencing installed on scaffolding protects workers below the scaffolding from what hazards?	Falling objects
When is climbing cross-braces permitted?	It is strictly prohibited

Module 17: Tools – Hand and Power Answers

Statement	Answer
A ___ or control switch cuts off power to the machine when pressure is released.	Constant pressure
Machine guards protect the worker from which of the following?	Point of operation, in-running nip points, rotating parts.
Keep your fingers off of the switch/buttons to prevent	Accidentally starting a power tool
Belting sanding machines require___ at each nip point where the belt runs onto a pulley	Guards
When using a hand held portable grinder with the hard wheel in operation, the guard must be in place	True
It is all right to remove the third “grounding” prong on a male plug to fit the plug into a two -pronged receptacle	False
When using pneumatic tools, a __ must be installed to prevent attachments from being ejected during tool operation:	Safety clip
If an air hose is greater than 1/2 inch in diameter, a ___ must be installed:	Safety excess flow valve
For Jack Hammers and Chipping guns, use:	Foot protection, safety glasses, heavy rubber grips
Airless Spray Guns operating at more than __ pounds per square inch pressure must have an automatic or visible safety device that prevents your pulling the trigger:	1000
Hazards of Pneumatic Tools include:	Tripping hazard, excess pressure, potential for air hoses to whip
If a powder actuated tools, misfires, hold it in operating position for at least __ seconds before re-firing:	30
A powder actuated tool must not be able to operate until it is pressed against a work surface with a force of at least __ lbs greater than the total weight of the tool	5
When using a high velocity tool, do not drive fastener closer than___ inches from an unsupported edge or corner of material	3
Do not use a powder actuated tool in an explosive or flammable atmosphere	True
Safety guards used on portable grinders are allowed a maximum exposure angle of __ degrees	180
Routers, planners, laminate trimmer sheers, and jig saws, may be equipped with positive “on-off” control	True
A constant pressure switch is also required for all hand-held power drills, fasteners, grinders	True
Muzzle end of the powder actuated tool must have a protective shield or guard that will not allow the tool to operate unless depressed	True
The primary causes of incidents and injuries are:	Unsafe acts and unsafe conditions
The “General Duty Clause”, section 5 of federal OSHA requirements, states the duty of the employer as:	To furnish to each of his employees employment and a place of employment which are free from recognized hazards that are causing or are likely to cause death or serious physical harm to his employees
What is the definition of a near miss?	Something narrowly avoided; a lucky escape
Employees are responsible to:	Comply with all OSHA standard and rules, comply with all company established health and safety requirements, be held responsible for complying to established requirements
The general duty clause imposes requirements on:	Employers and employees
Prevent unsafe conditions:	1) Recognize 2) Evaluate 3) Eliminate or control 4) Re-evaluate
What are the steps for preventing unsafe conditions?	Recognize the conditions, evaluate the conditions and related hazards, eliminate and/or control the hazards, re-evaluate as the situation changes
Unsafe conditions are:	Easy to recognize with appropriate training, easy to control with training and procedures, best established by buddy teams so that nothing is missed.

Who is responsible for your safety?	Yourself
Unsafe acts are:	Totally under your control
Which of the following responses to “increased risk” behaviors can result in poor safety culture? They are:	Allowed, encouraged, and/or ignored
Why do construction workers take risks?	Macho attitudes, schedule pressures and co-worker attitudes
“Negative Motivators” leading to unsafe acts include:	Negative safety attitudes, pressure to produce the product as opposed to working safely, cost related issues that can impact work performance
To change we need:	Positive role models, coaches, and mentors
A change in safety culture requires:	A positive role model and leaders that are committed to doing the right things
A changed in safety culture requires:	Mutual trust, respect, stability consistency, meaning, learned beliefs, values, and shared assumptions
Best known methods for improving performance include:	Benchmarking with competitors, trade org, government agencies, consultants
Keys to safety leadership include:	The overall sharing of vision and passion, individuals work to gain trust and respect of others, individuals with great communication skills
Safety leadership also includes:	Setting reasonable expectation for safe performance, providing timely praise and recognition when appropriate, asking for feedback from employees and coworkers, providing appropriate feedback such as coaching
Osha requires fall protection when working near the edge of a trench or excavation that is __ or more in depth	6 ft

It is important to drive fasteners into very hard or brittle materials that might chip or splatter, or make the fasteners ricochet. True or False?	False
__________ tools must be fitted with appropriate guards and safety switches. They are extremely hazardous when used improperly.	Power
The __________ is responsible for the safe condition of tools and equipment used by employees.	Employer
When using saw blades, knives, or other sharp tools, employees should direct the tool __________ other employees working in close proximity.	Away from
Ensure that a _____________ tool is fastened securely to the air hose to prevent a disconnection.	Pneumatic
The point of ____________ is where the work is actually performed on the materials and must be guarded or otherwise protected.	Operations
Basic Tool Safety includes: 1. Inspect tools before use 2. Perform maintenance regularly 3. Use the right tool for the job 4. Operate according to manufacturers’ instructions 5. Use the proper personal protective equipment (PPE) 6. Use required and provided guards
Workers using hand and power tools may be exposed to: 1. Falling or Flying Objects 2. Harmful dusts 3. Damaged electrical cords
The lower blade guard on a radial arm saw is NOT designed to prevent the operator from coming into contact with the rotating blade. True or False?	False
__________ should be trained in the proper use and handling of tools and equipment.	Employees

Module 18: Welding and Cutting Answers

Statement	Answer
OSHA requires that welders work in safely _______ to avoid the danger from inhalation of gases and particulates that can result from welding processes.	Well ventilated areas
The type of weld used is normally determined by ________	Both A and B
Heat from an electric arc, a steam of ionized gas called plasma, or burning gases to trim metal objects to specific dimensions	Metal cutting
Process in which metals are fused together by heating them with electricity that is generated between an electrode and the surface of the base metal.	Arc welding
Activity which depends on the heat produced by the combustion of a fuel gas in the presence of oxygen.	Oxygen and fuel gas welding
In the arc welding process, eye exposure to intense visible light is prevented for the most part by the __________.	Welder’s Helmet
In arc welding the arc which produces the heat to melt metal produces intense light. This light can be a combination of three forms of non-ionizing radiation known as?	Ultraviolet light, Infrared light, Visible light
Fumes and gases enter the body through the _________ and effect the lungs directly or are transported by blood and the lymph system to other parts of the body.	Respiratory system
Metal fume fever is principally associated with what chemical substance generated when welding.	Zinc
In addition to fumes, welding produces a number of gasses to include which of the following?	All of the above
Vapors of these solvents are a concern in welding and cutting because the heat and ultraviolet radiation from the arc will decompose the vapors and form highly toxic and irritating phosgene gas.	Chlorinated hydrocarbons
An investigating tool used to characterize the nature and extent of contaminants in air and to determine whether contaminant sources affect a workers air quality.	Both B and C
Permissible exposure levels are established by _______ for many compounds to minimize or prevent adverse health exposures.	Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA)
Administrative/work practices controls include which of the following?	Both A and B
Welders helmets and respirators are examples of what type of controls?	Personal Protective Equipment
Before a regulator is removed from a cylinder valve, the cylinder valve must always ____________.	Be closed and the gas released from the regulator
Gas welding cylinders should be stored and secured in	An upright position
Position where oxygen cylinders are separated from fuel gas cylinder	At a minimum of 20 feet or by a noncombustible barrier
Dos and don’ts of gas welding and cutting include which of the following?	All of the above
Cylinders may be used as rollers or supports when?	Never
Arc Welding cables in need of repair must _________.	Not be used and effectively repaired by a qualified person or effectively disposed of.
Hot electrode holders must not be dipped in water by the welder or cutter because doing so may expose the worker to _______________.	Electric shock
Whenever practicable, all arc welding and cutting operations shall be shielded by noncombustible or flameproof screen which will _____________.	Protect workers from the direct rays of the arc.
When a structure or pipeline is employed as a ground return circuit, it must be determined that _______________.	The required electrical contact exist at all joist
Moving all flammables and combustibles away from the welding area is ____________.	An example of effective fire prevention
An important feature of a hot work permit includes which of the following?	All of the above

You must never weld, cut or perform hot work when?	All of the above
It is important before welding and hot work to remove coating along the line of the weld such as ______________ to prevent the release of toxins.	All of the above
What kind of testing is required before entry into a confined space?	All of the above
Fuel gas and oxygen hoses must be:	easily distinguishable from each other
Found in the coatings of several types of fluxes used in welding.	Fluorides
It is important before welding and hot work to remove coatings along the line of the weld such as ___________ to prevent the release of toxins.	All of the above
Ultraviolet radiation (UV) is generated by the _________ in the welding process.	Electric Arc
The most common and simplest type of welding today is _________.	Arc welding
Controlling exposure to the safety and health hazards encountered in welding operations include engineering controls (e.g. ventilation), _______________ and _________________.	Both A and B

To be acceptable for use, cables must be free of repairs and splices for at least _____ feet from cable end to electrode holders.	10
Damaged hoses must be tested to twice their normal pressure, which cannot be below _____ p.s.i.	300
Gas mixing may only be carried out by the:	Gas supplier
When working with stainless steel, workers must protect themselves from:	Nitrogen dioxide
When a cylinder is being transported, the valve MUST be:	Capped
What is the recommended opening for valves?	One and half turns
A frozen cylinder can be thawed using:	Warm water
Cylinders may be stored inside buildings if the storage meets all these conditions EXCEPT:	Well-lit
If general mechanical or local exhaust ventilation cannot be provided, air line respirators are required when working with _____.	Metals containing lead
When manifolds and headers are not in use, they should be _____.	Capped

Module 19: Silica Exposure Answers

Question	Answer
What exposure controls are needed when using a stationary masonry saw?	1. Use a saw that is equipped with integrated water delivery system with constant feed.<br>2. Operate per the Operations and Maintenance manual to minimize dust emissions.<br>3. No respiratory protection needed.
Apply water and dust suppression as necessary to minimize dust emissions.	True
Health hazards related to over exposure to respirable crystalline silica are:	1. Chronic Obstructive Pulmonary Disease<br>2. Chronic Kidney Disease<br>Silicosis
Who is capable of identifying existing and predicable hazards and has the authority to make prompt corrective actions?	Competent Person
How many American workers does OSHA estimate are exposed to Respirable Crystalline Silica?	2.3 million
Housekeeping techniques are designed to reduce or eliminate the workplace exposure to silica.	True
What is the Permissible Exposure Limit for respirable crystalline silica?	50 micrograms per meter cubed
What is an example of an engineering control?	1. Wet cutting methods<br>2. Vacuums equipped with a .3 micron HEPA filter<br>3. Substrate substitutes for silica sand
What is the Action Level for exposure to respirable crystalline silica?	25 micrograms per meter cubed
What is the type of dust that is the cause of silicosis?	Respirable Crystalline Silica

Module 20: Lead Exposure Answers

Question	Answer
Lead has an action level of	30 micrograms per cubic meter.
In the construction industry, the most common route of lead absorption into the body is	ingestion.
All contaminated clothes that have to be laundered, cleaned, or disposed of should be placed in	closed containers and sealed off.
There is no material available which can be used as a substitute to Lead.	False
Lead can cause anemia as it hinder the formation of hemoglobin in the blood. It can also cause damage to the cells in the kidneys, leading to kidney failure.
Workers can accidentally consume lead particles while eating or drinking contaminated food or beverages, or by eating, drinking, or smoking with contaminated hands.	True
Lead compounds were often applied to steel and iron structures in the form of paint primer.	Lead
If you have a blood level of 40, you must be tested at least every other month until you blood lead level goes below 40 for two consecutive blood tests.	True
Lead can severely damage you nervous, urinary, blood-forming, and reproductive systems.
Early signs of lead poisoning include	Loss of appetite, Metallic taste, Irritability.

Module 21: Asbestos Exposure Answers

Question	Answer
To ensure the protection of the crew, who should collect the samples of possible ACM for laboratory testing?	A qualified person
Willard is going through the decontamination process. Which one of these steps must be completed AFTER he takes a shower?	Remove respirator
The likelihood of a person developing an asbestos-related disease is based on all factors EXCEPT:	Gender
In a high risk asbestos exposure area, the worker with the LOWEST risk of exposure is likely the worker who:	Disposes of asbestos-contaminated waste materials
The measures required to control asbestos fibers in the air during high-risk activities include all these procedures EXCEPT:	Keep work area air pressure higher than surrounding pressures
Most asbestos related diseases affect workers in all these asbestos related industries EXCEPT:	Remediation
Asbestos containing materials is most commonly used in:	1. Insulation material 2. Fireproofing material 3. Acoustical material
The encapsulation of asbestos containing materials requires:	Covering with a sealant or encapsulating material to prevent the release of fibers
Employers can protect their employees against asbestos exposure by providing either air supplying or atmosphere supplying ___________.	Respirators
For their workers involved in high risk asbestos exposure jobs, employers must provide all these preventive protections EXCEPT:	Cancer insurance

The Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA) 30 Construction Outreach Training is a comprehensive program intended for safety directors, field supervisors, and forepersons in the construction industry. The 30-hour course covers a range of topics designed to teach supervisors the rules and regulations for everyone working under their supervision.

The training consists of modules, and at the end of each module, there is a 10-question quiz. To move forward to the next module, you must score at least 70% on each quiz, and you have three attempts to pass each one. If you fail to pass the quiz on your third attempt, you will be locked out of the course and cannot continue with online training. After completing the modules, you must pass a final exam, which is 20 questions long, to receive full credit for the course. You get three opportunities to pass the final exam, and you need a score of at least 70% to pass it.

You have six months from the course enrollment date to complete the 30-hour Construction Outreach Training. If you do not complete the course within six months, your account will expire, and you will need to purchase the course again. However, upon successfully completing the course, you can immediately obtain a temporary printable certificate, and you will receive a DOL Construction Outreach course completion wallet card within two weeks.

OSHA 30 Construction suits workers and supervisors with job site safety responsibilities. The program emphasizes hazard control, avoidance, prevention, and identification for OSHA standards. Therefore, it is best suited for positions such as safety directors, field supervisors, and forepersons who have supervisory duties.

Although DOL cards do not expire at the federal level, some states and industries have unique requirements. Hence, you should renew your training every 3-4 years to stay updated on OSHA regulation changes.