How to Answer NPTE Exam Questions?

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National Physical Therapist Exam Practice Test

 

Questions And Answers

 

end-feel that is an absolute contraindication for joint mobilization
empty
a common contracture following transfemoral amputation
hip flexion contracture

best initial intervention for shoulder impingement:

postural correction, AROM, stretching, or modalities

correct postural alignment first
typical posture of a patient with Parkinson’s
forward head and trunk
hip and knee flexion
typical gait of a patient of Parkinson’s
festinating gait: small, shuffling steps and generally slow movement

T or F:

A rolling walker is indicated for the typical patient with Parkinson’s posture and gait

False.

A rolling walker is contraindicated because it would exacerbate the postural and gait impairments

term for the inability to feel pain
analgesia
term for feeling pain from things that do not normally cause pain
allodynia
term for an abnormally heightened sensation of pain
hyperalgesia
what is allodynia
feeling pain from stimuli that shouldn’t actually cause pain
analgesia vs anesthesia
analgesia is loss of pain sensation, anesthesia is global loss of sensation
typical end-feel of elbow and knee flexion
soft
which quadriceps muscle *may* reduce the tendency of the patella to track laterally
vastus medialis
cranial nerve involved in Bell’s palsy
CN VII: facial nerve
symptoms of Bell’s palsy
unilateral facial drooping/paralysis of muscles of facial expression (opening/closing eyes, smiling/frowning, raising eyebrows, etc.)
what is ptosis
drooping of the eyelid

A young female patient has larger than normal Q angle and complains of subpatellar pain.

Would you strengthen vastus lateralis or medialis?

vastus medialis (to reduce lateral tracking of the patella)
damage to this cranial nerve can result in weakness of paralysis of the muscles of mastication
CN V: trigeminal nerve
cranial nerve responsible for motor function of the tongue
CN XII: hypoglossal nerve
LDL level above what is considered a risk
> 130
total cholesterol above what is considered a risk
> 200
HDL below what is considered a risk
men < 40, women < 50

which values are abnormal:

total cholesterol: 220
LDL: 150
HDL: 30

All of them.

total cholesterol: should be < 200
LDL: should be < 130
HDL: should be at least 40 if man, 50 if woman

T or F:

The adverse effects of tricyclic antidepressants increase fall risk.

True. Side effects include postural hypotension, lethargy, sedation, and blurred vision.
The abnormal presence of bone in soft tissue
Heterotopic ossification
The abnormal presence of a painful mass of bone tissue, usually within a large muscle
myositis ossificans
Myositis ossificans usually occurs within a large muscle following __________.
Trauma to the area

A patient had blunt trauma to their quads and subsequent loss of knee function. Best early intervention:

A. Gentle AROM in WB
B. Aggressive stretching
C. Aggressive OKC strengthening for quads
D. Gentle PROM in non-WB

A. Gentle AROM in WB

Aggressive stretching or strengthening can promote myositis ossificans.

Gentle PROM is too conservative for restoring knee function.

Long thoracic nerve innervates the _______.
serratus anterior
Musculocutaneous nerve comes off which cord
lateral cord
The nerves that the posterior cord gives rise to
Axillary
Thoracodorsal
Upper subscapular
Lower subscapular
Radial
What innervates the lats
thoracodorsal n.

A patient has R buttock pain after slipping. Physical exam reveals full, pain-free lumbar AROM.

T or F: This rules out a QL strain.

True
An inverted forefoot relative to rearfoot in subtalar neutral is called: _______.
forefoot varus
Hyperactivity of the adrenal glands leading to excessive cortisol is called: _______ syndrome.
Cushing’s
Hypoactivity of the adrenal glands is called: _______ syndrome.
Addison’s
Weakness and wasting in the LE’s, hypertension, and moonface are symptoms of: _______.
Cushing’s syndrome
The position of the calcaneus from initial contact through loading response
everted
Foot drop can be caused by damage to this peripheral nerve
deep fibular n.
CVA patient has trouble clearing the hemiparetic foot during swing phase of gait. Which movements are best to improve function?

hip and knee flexion

dorsiflexion

put these in order of decreasing quality of evidence:

Non-randomized case control studies
Single-center RCT’s
Non-randomized cohort/comparison studies
Multicenter RCT’s
Case series or case reports without controls

Level I. multicenter RCT’s
Level II. single RCT’s
Level III. non-randomized cohort/comparison studies
Level IV. non-randomized case control studies
Level V. case series or case reports without controls

An athlete takes a hit to the head during a game. They have normal respiration, but are unresponsive.

Do you log-roll the player onto their back while stabilizing the neck or call emergency services immediately

If unresponsive but breathing, do not move the person and call 911 or summon emergency personnel
What muscles can a tetraplegic patient with C6 ASIA A injury use to transfer on a sliding board?

posterior and anterior delts, rotator cuff

use these to position and lock the elbow

T or F:
A tetraplegic patient with C6 ASIA A injury can use triceps to stabilize the elbow during transfers.
False, tris will be non-functional
What should you tell a patient who is worried about complications of their upcoming lateral release surgery for chronic patellar subluxation?

Suggest that they speak with the surgeon.

It is not within PT scope of practice to discuss indications and problems that could arise from this surgical procedure.

A patient can only get 80 degrees of R shoulder elevation and has a positive empty can. What is the best early subacute intervention:

Rotator cuff strengthening
Modalities
Superior glide mobs
Active-assisted pulleys

Active-assisted pulley exercises will promote healing of supraspinatus and maintain ROM.

Inferior glide helps with elevation. We want to reduce pain and inflammation and modalities do that but they are not optimal at this stage. Resistance exercise is too aggressive at this stage.

A pregnant patient with a desk job has a CC of tingling and weakness in both hands that is worse after typing for longer than 20 min. Best intervention?

Hydrocortisone iontophoresis to volar wrists.
Dexamethasone phonophoresis to carpal tunnel.
Place wrists in resting splints.
Ice packs to carpal tunnel.

Gestational CTS is not uncommon. Splinting in neutral protects the carpal tunnel from compression during work activities.

Modalities that use steroids are contraindicated during pregnancy, and ice isn’t good enough.

You suspect your 2 year old patient is autistic. Which supports that conclusion the most?

Gross motor delay.
Quiet and unwilling to separate from the mother.
Defensive when touched.
Responsive to most but not all commands.

Defensive when touched.

It’s not weird to be quiet/shy and not like being away from mommy for any 2 year-old.

Gross motor delay could be CP or something else, not necessarily autism.

An autistic child is more likely to be unresponsive to most commands.

T or F:
A patient has stopped responding to TENS even though it is at maximum intensity. Decreasing pulse duration would enable them to benefit from TENS again.
False.
If at maximum intensity, decreasing pulse duration will not help the patient respond to TENS again.
T or F:
Low-rate TENS is indicated for chronic LBP.
False.
Low-rate TENS is motor-level stimulation, not sensory.
A benefit of burst modulation mode TENS
Periodic interruption of the current flow prevents accommodation.

Your elderly patient comes in with multiple bruises on the face and arms, but says they don’t know how they got them.

Later, the patient mentions “my caretaker is under a great deal of stress.”

What do you do?

Contact the appropriate jurisdiction and file a report for suspected abuse/neglect, in accordance with the APTA Code of Ethics.
A patient walks with a Trendelenburg gait and has weak (3/5) R hip abduction. What is the best muscle group for FES and during what phase of gait?
R hip abductors during R stance.
T or F:
Children with Down syndrome typically present with generalized hypotonicity.
True.
Good interventions are usually WB activities in antigravity postures.
T or F:
Rolling activities would be appropriate for an 18-month-old child with Down syndrome and moderate developmental delay.
False.
Probably not. They should be able to roll already and typically walk by 24 months.
T or F:
An 18-month-old child with Down syndrome would respond well to PNF techniques.
False.
Proprioception is low-level and the child probably would not respond well to PNF.

Will COPD affect the following pulmonary test values:

Functional residual capacity (FRC)
Total lung capacity (TLC)
Residual volume (RV)
Vital capacity (VC)
Forced vital capacity (FEV-1/FVC)

Increased: FRC, TLC, RV
Decreased: VC, FEV-1/FVCForced vital capacity (FEV-1/FVC is a ratio used to help diagnose COPD. > 70% indicates COPD)

Your patient asks about if they will be sore after doing exercise during therapy.

You tell they may experience DOMS, and it typically begins __ – __ hours after exercise, peaks in __ – __ hours, and can last up to __ – __ days.

begins 12-24 hrs after exercise

peaks 24-48 hrs

can last up to 5-7 days

In patients with spinal stenosis, activities or positions that place the spine in _______ make their symptoms worse.
extension
T or F:
Obesity is consistently reported as a predictor of lymphedema after modified radical mastectomy for breast cancer.
True.
Weight management is key for patient education.
T or F:
The use of diuretics is a predictor of lymphedema after modified radical mastectomy for breast cancer.
False.

You are doing postural drainage in the Trendy position to your adolescent patient with cystic fibrosis.

Suddenly, the patient complains of R-sided chest pain and SOB. You auscultate and breath sounds are absent on the right. What do you do?

Call Emergency Medical Services. It may be a pneumothorax
Your patient is 5 days post-MI in inpatient cardiac rehab. For initial exercise intensity, you ideally want HR < ___ bpm and RPE < __

HR < 120 bpm (or less than resting + 20)

RPE < 13

what is homonymous hemianopsia
Loss of the same half of field of vision in both eyes
generally, motor disorders characterized by involuntary muscle movements
dyskinesia
T or F:
Long-term use of Levodopa can lead to the development of dyskinesias, GI distress, or mental disturbances.
True
Is hemosiderin staining indicative of venous or arterial insufficiency
venous insufficiency
describe a Romberg test
have patient stand with feet together and arms by their side.
Then have them close their eyes and try to maintain balance for 1 min
After a middle cerebral artery stroke, do you expect the arms or legs to be more affected?
greater involvement of arms than legs
T or F:
Expected deficits of a posterior cerebral artery stroke would be contralateral hemiparesis with greater involvement of the arms than the legs.

False.

posterior artery gets legs > arms

A patient has foot drop. During which period of the gait cycle would you apply FES to tib anterior?

Mid-swing, late stance, or early stance

mid-swing
What are adverse effects of chronic treatment for MS exacerbations with corticosteroids.
Adrenal suppression: muscle wasting, weakness, osteoporosis, weight loss or anorexia, N&V
To test for maximal passive tibiofemoral IR/ER, how much flexion should you position the knee in?
90

Your patient is an adolescent female with anterior knee pain. What are your likely findings?

1. pes planus or cavus
2. lateral or medial tibial torsion
3. genu valgum or genu varu,
4. lateral or medial femoral rotation

1. pes planus
2. lateral tibial torsion
3. genu valgum
4. medial femoral rotation
Most likely burn depth if the skin surface is parchment-like, leathery, and dry
full-thickness
Most likely burn depth if the skin surface is dry with no blisters
superficial
Most likely burn depth if there are blisters

partial thickness

superficial = intact blisters
deep = broken blisters

If you are performing a posterior glide of the talus, what motion are you trying to gain?
dorsiflexion

Your patient is a pitcher and recently had surgical repair of a SLAP tear on the throwing arm. Which phase of throwing places the greatest stress on the anterior labrum?

Wind-up, acceleration, deceleration, or cocking

Cocking phase, because it takes the humerus to end-range external rotation.
what is Noble’s compression test for
IT band friction syndrome
A negative scour test probably rules out what condition at the hip
OA/DJD
how would forefoot varus be compensated for?
pronation and medial tibial rotation
Your elderly patient has an irregular, dark-pigmented ulcer over the medial malleolus. It is not painful. It is more likely to be due to venous or arterial insufficiency?
Venous.
Arterial are also irregular, but not dark color. They are also painful.
What type of drug is omeprazole (Prilosec)
proton pump inhibitor (PPI)
Your patient is taking omeprazole for GERD. How long should you wait after your patient eats to do therapy?
at least 90 minutes after meals so your therapy activity doesn’t make the GERD worse

A physical therapist is using the palmar surface of his hands to compress the patient’s soft tissue by performing small circular and long stroking movements with deep pressure. Which massage technique is the physical therapist doing?

A. Friction
B. Tapping
C. Vibration
D. Kneading

A. Friction

The tapping massage technique is being used when the hands rapidly strike an individual’s soft tissue.
The vibration technique is used when the hands shake a patient’s soft tissue by using short, rapid, quivering motions. The kneading technique is used when the hands grasp and lift a patient’s soft tissue

Alveolar hyperventilation is known to cause respiratory alkalosis. Which of the following is not a common sign associated with respiratory alkalosis?

A. Early tetany
B. Syncope
C. Tingling
D. Secondary hyperventilation

D. Secondary Hyperventilation

Secondary hyperventilation is not a sign or symptom of respiratory alkalosis. This is associated with metabolic acidosis

The common signs or symptoms of respiratory alkalosis include dizziness, early tetany, tingling, syncope, and numbness

You are working in a women’s health physical therapy clinic, treating a woman with urge urinary incontinence. Urge urinary incontinence occurs when the sensation of a full bladder is perceived, and urine is leaked due to an inability to delay voiding to reach a toilet. Which of the following correctly identifies a cause of urge urinary incontinence?

A. Hypersensitive bladder
B. Impaired cognition
C. Neurogenic bladder
D. Weak pelvic floor

A. Hypersensitive bladder

A hypersensitive bladder is a cause associated with urge urinary incontinence. Detrusor muscle instability or hyperreflexia is another cause associated with urge urinary incontinence

Neurogenic bladder is a cause associated with overflow urinary incontinence.
Impaired cognition is a cause associated with functional urine incontinence.
Weak pelvic floor musculature is a cause associated with stress urinary incontinence.

You are analyzing the gait of a 4-year-old child referred for physical therapy consultation in the preschool setting. In regards to the swing phase, spasticity of the posterior tibialis can cause which of the following common gait deviations?

A. Varus
B. Equinovarus
C. Foot drop
D. Insufficient knee flexion

B. Equinovarus

Equinovarus is a common gait deviation that occurs during the swing phase as a result of spasticity of the posterior tibialis (and/or gastrocnemius-soleus)

Varus is a common gait deviation that occurs during the swing phase as a result of weakened peroneals, spastic invertors, or abnormal synergistic pattern.
Foot drop is a common gait deviation that occurs during the swing phase as a result of weakened contraction of dorsiflexors or spastic plantar flexors.
Insufficient knee flexion is a common gait deviation that occurs during the swing phase as a result of weakened hamstrings or extensor spasticity.

A physical therapist is working with a patient who displays toe first stepping. The physical therapist know that toe first stepping can be a result of all except which of the following?

A. Weak dorsiflexors
B. Tight plantarflexors
C. Genu valgum
D. A shortened leg

C. Genu valgum

Genu valgum (knock-knees) is a common lower leg abnormality that is usually seen in the toddler, preschool and early school age child. In genu valgum, the lower extremities turn inward, causing the appearance of the knees to be touching while the ankles remain apart. Toe first is not a result of genu valgum. Genu valgum can contribute to over pronation.

Toe first can be a result of weak dorsiflexors, tight plantarflexors, or a shortened leg.

Sacroiliac dysfunction is a pregnancy-related pathology associated with sitting, standing, or walking too long. Which of the following is a physical therapy intervention that should be used for sacroiliac dysfunction?

A. Pelvic floor exercises
B. Use of external stabilization
C. Avoidance of stretching
D. Single-limb weight bearing exercises

B. Use of external stabilization

A physical therapist should recommend the use of external stabilization for sacroiliac dysfunction. A sacroiliac support belt is an example of an external stabilization mechanism that could be used to help reduce the patient’s pain.

Single-limb weight-bearing exercises are incorrect because this type of exercise could aggravate the patient’s sacroiliac dysfunction.
The patient should not avoid stretching and the therapist should teach appropriate sacroiliac and lumbar stretching exercises.
Pelvic floor exercises are incorrect because it is an intervention that would be sued for cesarean childbirth or pelvic floor disorders.

The tricuspid valve is an atrioventricular valve that has three cusps. Which of the following statements is true in regards to the tricuspid valve?

A. It is the right heart valve
B. It prevents left backflow into the ventricle during diastole
C. It prevents right backflow into the ventricle during diastole
D. It is the left heart valve

A. It is the right heart valve

The tricuspid valve is the right heart valve. Atrioventricular valves, such as the tricuspid valve and the bicuspid valve, prevent backflowing into the atria during ventricular systole.

The aortic valve prevents left backflow into the ventricle during diastole.
The pulmonary valve prevents right backflow into the ventricle during diastole.
The bicuspid valve is the left heart valve.

The endocrine system uses hormones to regulate many body functions including growth and development and reproductive functions. In regards to the endocrine system, which of the following is responsible for controlling the release of androgen testosterone?

A. Testes
B. Kidneys
C. Ovaries
D. Thyroid

A. Testes

The kidneys are responsible for controlling the release of 1,25-dihydroxy-vitamin D.
The ovaries are responsible for controlling the release of progesterone and estrogen.
The thyroid is responsible for controlling the release of thyroxine and triiodothyronine.

You are working with a geriatric woman in a sub-acute rehabilitation setting. She presents with functional urinary incontinence. Functional urinary incontinence occurs when urine leakage is associated with the unwillingness or inability to use the toilet. Which of the following correctly identifies a cause of functional urinary incontinence?

A. Hypersensitive bladder
B. Alzheimer’s disease
C. Obesity
D. Prostate enlargement

B. Alzheimer’s disease

Alzheimer’s disease is a cause associated with functional urinary incontinence. Other causes include depression, environmental barriers, stroke, and impaired physical functioning.

Hypersensitive bladder is a cause associated with urge urinary incontinence.
Obesity is a cause associated with stress urinary incontinence.
Prostate enlargement is a cause associated with overflow urinary incontinence.

Your patient is complaining of musculoskeletal pain but reports a history of colon pathology. In regards to gastrointestinal pain patterns, a physical therapist should know that visceral pain from the appendix, colon, or pelvic viscera can refer to which of the following?

A. The lower back, pelvis, or sacrum
B. The scapular and midback regions
C. The midback
D. The shoulder

A. The lower back, pelvis, sacrum

Visceral pain from the appendix, colon, or pelvic viscera can refer to the lower back, pelvis, or sacrum.

Visceral pain from the gallbladder, pancreas, small intestine, or stomach can refer to the scapular and midback regions.
Visceral pain from the esophagus can refer to the midback.
Visceral pain from the diaphragm, liver, or pericardium can refer to the shoulder.

Which fissure of the brain separates the temporary lobe from the frontal and parietal lobes?

A. Transverse fibers
B. Longitudinal cerebral fissure
C. Central sulcus
D. Lateral central fissure

D. Lateral central fissure

The lateral central fissure (also known as the fissure of Sylvius) separates the temporal lobe from the frontal and parietal lobes.

The transverse fibers are the brain’s white matter that interconnects the brain’s two hemispheres.
The longitudinal cerebral fissure divides the brain’s two hemispheres.
The central sulcus divides the parietal lobe from the frontal lobe.

Which condition of the gastrointestinal system describes a situation of intractable constipation with fecal impaction and retention of hard, dry stools in the rectum and colon?

A. Obstipation
B. Achalasia
C. Gastritis
D. Dysphagia

A. Obstipation

Constipation is a decrease in normal elimination of stool. It is characterized by excessively hard, dry stools and difficulty with elimination. A diet lacking fiber, inadequate fluid intake, sedentary lifestyle, increased age, and medication can contribute to constipation.

Achalasia is a condition in which the lower esophageal sphincter fails to relax, and the food is trapped in the esophagus.
Gastritis is the inflammation of the stomach mucosa.
Dysphagia refers to difficulty swallowing. The patient may experience choking, coughing, or the abnormal sensation of food stuck in the back of the throat. Conditions that contribute to dysphagia can include lesions of the central nervous system, esophageal scarring, swelling, cancer, and scleroderma.

The heart contains four chambers: right atrium, right ventricle, left atrium and left ventricle. In regards to the physiology of the cardiovascular system, the lungs and the four pulmonary veins provide which of these chambers with oxygenated blood?

A. Left ventricle
B. Left atrium
C. Right ventricle
D. Right atrium

B. Left atrium

The lungs and the four pulmonary veins provide the heart’s left atrium with oxygenated blood.

The blood that the right atrium receives is from systemic circulation, which is derived from the inferior and superior vena cavae. Using the pulmonary artery, the right ventricle pumps the blood that it receives from the right atrium to the lungs for oxygenation. using the aorta, the left ventricle pumps the blood that it receives from the left atrium throughout the entire systemic circulation.

A physical therapist is working with a patient who has weakness in their supraspinatus and deltoid muscles, impairing shoulder abduction. The physical therapist knows that the patient is most likely using which muscles to initiate shoulder movement in place of the weakened shoulder abductors?

A. Lower obliques
B. Adductor magnus
C. Lateral trunk
D. Scapular stabilizers

D. Scapular stabilizers

When an individual’s shoulder abductors are weakened, his or her body is most likely relying on its scapular stabilizers to initiate shoulder motion. When muscles become weakened, the body relies on its stronger muscles to compensate for the damaged muscles.

Lower obliques are used when hip flexors become weak.
Adductor magnus muscles are used when hip extensors become weak.
Lateral trunk muscles are used when hip abductors become weak.

Apocrine glands are sweat glands that are stimulated by which of the following?

A. Emotional stress
B. Infections
C. Hydration
D. Increased body temperature

A. Emotional stress

Apocrine glands are located in the axillary and genital vicinities. These glands open into the hair follicles found within these areas.

The other options are incorrect because apocrine glands are not stimulated by temperature, hydration or infections.

The physical therapist is assessing deep tendon reflexes as part of a comprehensive evaluation. He is assessing for nerve root level S1-2. What is the reflex testing site?

A. Biceps
B. Achilles
C. Quadriceps
D. Hamstrings

B. Achilles

The Achilles deep tendon reflex examines nerve root level S1-2.
The biceps deep tendon reflex examines nerve root level C5-6.
The quadriceps deep tendon reflex examines nerve root level L2-4.
The hamstrings deep tendon reflex examines nerve root level L5-S3.

There are twelve pairs of cranial nerves. All except which of the following are distributed to the neck and the head?

A. CN I
B. CN X
C. CN VII
D. CN XII

B. CN X

CN X (Vagus) is the only cranial nerve that is not distributed to the neck and the head. CN X is distributed to the abdomen and the thorax and is responsible for the gag reflex

CN I (Olfactory), CN VII (Facial), CN XII (Hypoglossal) are all distributed to the neck and the head. CN I functions for the smell. CN VII is utilized for facial expression. CN XII is utilized for tongue movements.

The tibiofemoral and patellofemoral joints are located within the knee region and utilize medial collateral (MCL), lateral collateral (LCL), anterior cruciate (ACL)< and posterior cruciate ligaments (PCL). Which of the following statements is true in regards to the knee region’s medial collateral ligaments?

A. The MCL runs oblique superiorly and laterally
B. The MCL runs oblique inferiorly and posteriorly
C. The MCL runs oblique anteriorly and inferiorly
D. The MCL runs oblique medially and anteriorly-superiorly

C. The MCL runs oblique anteriorly and inferiorly

When in extension, the MCL is taut and when in flexion, the MCL is slackened. The MCL provides stability against valgus forces and prevents external rotation.

The ACL runs oblique superiorly and laterally.
The LCL runs oblique inferiorly and posteriorly.
The PCL runs oblique medially and anteriorly-superiorly.

Traumatic brain injuries are classified as either primary or secondary brain damage. Which is an example of an injury that causes primary brain damage?

A. Hypoxic-ischemic injury
B. Electrolyte imbalance
C. Increased intracranial pressure
D. Hematoma

D. Hematoma

Contusions, lacerations or hematoma are focal injuries that cause primary brain damage.

Electrolyte imbalance, increase intracranial pressure, and hypoxic-ischemic injury are all causes of secondary brain damage.

Primary causes of brain damage happen at the time of injury/impact, while secondary causes of brain damage evolve over time after the impact.

You are examining a patient with complaints of SI joint pain. Which special sacroiliac joint test is utilized by physical therapists to identify sacroiliac joint dysfunction that may be caused by a functional leg discrepancy?

A. Ipsilateral anterior rotation test
B. Long sitting test
C. Gillet’s test
D. Goldthwait’s test

B. Long sitting test

The long sitting test is deemed positive when limb lengths are reversed between sitting and supine positions.

The ipsilateral anterior rotation test is conducted in order to assess the anterior movement of a patient’s ilium in relation to the sacrum. Gillet’s test is performed in order to assess the posterior movement of a patient’s ilium in relation to the sacrum. Goldthwait’s test is performed in order to differentiate between sacroiliac joint dysfunction and lumbar spine dysfunction.

You are conducting a physical therapy evaluation for a patient that has experienced an electrical burn. The burn wound appears charred and you see that the epidermis, dermis, subcutaneous tissues, and muscles have been destroyed. How should this patient’s burn wound be classified?

A. Deep partial-thickness burn (second-degree)
B. Subdermal burn (fourth-degree)
C. Superficial partial-thickness burn (second-degree)
D. Epidermal burn (first-degree)

B. Subdermal burn (fourth-degree)

This type of burn can heal with skin grafting and scarring, but it will require extensive surgery and amputation is sometimes required.

A deep partial-thickness burn (second-degree) is a burn that severely damages the epidermis and dermis skin layers and causes damage to the sweat glands, hair follicles, and nerve endings.
A superficial partial-thickness burn (second-degree) is a burn that damages the epidermis skin layer and the upper layers of the dermis skin layer.
An epidermal burn (first-degree) is a burn that only damages the epidermis skin layer.

Sebaceous glands are an appendage of the skin. Which of the following statements is true in regards to sebaceous glands?

A. They help control body temperature
B. They are stimulated by emotional stress
C. They consist of eccrine and apocrine glands
D. They are found on all skin surfaces except the soles and palms

D. They are found on all skin surfaces except the soles and palms

Sebaceous glands secrete sebum through hair follicles, which defends the skin from fungus and bacteria.
Eccrine glands help control body temperature.
Apocrine glands are stimulated by emotional stress.
Sweat glands consist of eccrine and apocrine glands.

 

How Many Questions Do You Need To Get Right On NPTE?

The exam is graded on a scale from 200 to 800, with 600 as the passing score. This means that you must get at least 50% of the questions correct to pass the exam.

What Is The Best Way To Prepare For NPTE?

The best way to prepare for the NPTE is by taking practice exams and reviewing your results. This will help you identify any areas where you need to improve. You can also take advantage of resources such as study guides and online forums.

What Format Are The Questions On The NPTE?

There are five parts of 50 questions each. There are 40 scored items and 10 experimental questions.

What Should I Focus On For NPTE?

The areas that matter most are the ones you should focus on. Out of the 200 questions asked on the NPTE, 75% relate to these three topics: Musculoskeletal, Neuromuscular / Nervous System, Cardiopulmonary & Lymphatics. Obviously, all of the content is important to know, but if one (or more) of these subjects happen to be a weak spot for you- spend some extra time here!

Should You Study Day Before NPTE?

The answer to this question is a resounding YES! Cramming the night before an exam is never a good idea, but if you have been studying regularly and just need a quick review, then studying the day before can be helpful. Just don’t overdo it!

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