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According To Kant, To Act With A “Good Will” Means To Do What Will Benefit Others.

According to Kant, to act with a “Good Will” means to do what will benefit others.

  • True
  • False


According to Kant, to act with a “Good Will” means to do what will benefit others is False.

In Kant’s words, Good Will is a will whose choices follow only what the Moral Law demands. People naturally feel this Law as something that limits their regular desires–which is why such Laws are referred to as duties when applied to human beings. However, our choices seem forced and grudging when we are motivated only by duty. Kant believes a higher level of motivation is available to us: the Good Will.

The Good Will is not necessarily motivated by what will benefit others; instead, it acts from a sense of respect for the Moral Law. In other words, the Good Will does what is right because it is the right thing to do, not because it will lead to some other good outcome. This may seem like a small distinction, but it makes all the difference in Kant’s ethical system.

According to utilitarianism, an act that makes some people happy and others unhappy can never be morally right.
The reason that Mill believes that pleasure is the only intrinsic good is because he believes that it is the only thing that everyone desires for its own sake.
Utilitarianism is a relativistic moral theory, for it recognizes that what is good in some circumstances is not always good in others.
The cost benefit analysis is used by in all of the following circumstances except.
Deciding if one society is better than another.
According to utilitarianism which of the following is an intrinsic good?
According to act utilitarianism, if it produces more net utility or pleasure to give money that I had promised to return to a friend to famine relief instead, then I ought to give it to the relief fund.
According to utilitarianism which of the following is useful for evaluating the morality of an action?
The result.
Both Bentham and Mill hold that some pleasures are better in kind than others.
Which of the following is not necessary to act morally according to utilitarianism?
To act as the majority wishes.
Which of the following was not one of the founders of utilitarianism?
Rene Descartes
According to Kant, which of the following has the highest intrinsic value?
According to your text, which of the following was one of two main questions Kant asked?
What ought I do?
Moral “oughts” are all of the following EXCEPT
Supported by laws
According to Kant, the shopkeeper who charges an equal price of all her customers because she likes them is acting “out of duty.”
According to Kant, because persons are ends they ought not to be used as means to ends.
According to Kant, one can do what is right and that action still may not have “moral worth.”
Kant’s first form of the categorical imperative is derived from the idea that moral obligation as universally binding.
According to Kant, the highest moral activity happens as a result of
Acting out of a will to do the right thing.
According to Kant, to act with a “good will” means to do what will benefit others.
The reason why it is wrong to make a lying promise, according to Kant, is because this act cannot be willed as a general practice without contradiction.
According to Kant the moral worth of an act is determined by its consequences.
According to Kant, moral obligations are hypothetical in nature.
According to Kant, an obligation or “ought” is categorical when it is something we ought to do in order to achieve some ends or goals that we have.
Hypothetical imperatives are
Like suggesting we should use what works to arrive at a goal.
According to Kant, we are morally responsible for which of the following?
For our motive to do good or bad.
According to Kant, it is wrong to lie in order to prevent a murder.​
Which of the following best paraphrases Kant’s second form of the categorical imperative?
Don’t use people unless it is in their best interest.
“Act only on that maxim you can will to become universal law” is known as which form of Kant’s categorical imperative?
Which of the following philosophers does NOT agree that there is such a thing as human nature?
The Declaration of Independence draws on the theory of
One problem for natural rights theory is that not everyone agrees on what human nature requires.
Civil law is prescriptive and as such tells us how we ought to behave.
Locke argued all humans should be treated equally because we all have the same basic nature.
Existentialists like Sartre believe that essence precedes existence.
“Laws of nature” always refer to a natural law theory of ethics.
The idea that we know what the basic moral law requires by looking to human nature is a tenet of natural law theory.
Evolutionary theory may present a challenge to natural law theory.
The natural state of human liberty is a state of license according to Locke.
For Thomas Aquinas all laws created by humans are derived from natural law.
The idea that the basic moral law can be known by human reason is a fundamental tenet of natural law theory.
According to natural rights theory, moral requirements cannot be grounded in human nature.
Aristotle was the first philosopher to develop a complex ethical philosophy related to the ideas of natural law theory.
For Locke every person has a distinct right to punish those who transgress the natural law.
According to Thomas Aquinas, reason naturally inclines human beings to be good.

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